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Zscale ZDTA Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
Which of the following DLP Notification methods can be used to forward a copy of the data thattriggered the DLP policy to the auditor?
A. Email Notification Template B. NSS Log Forwarding to SIEM C. SMS Text Message via PagerDuty D. Zscaler Client Connector pop-up message
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Email Notification Template is the built in mechanism for forwarding a copy of the exact content
that triggered a DLP rule to your designated auditor via email.
Question # 2
Which Platform Service enables visibility into the headers and payload of encrypted transactions?
A. Policy Framework B. TLS Decryption C. Reporting and Logging D. Device Posture
Answer: B
Explanation:
The TLS Decryption platform service intercepts and decrypts SSL/TLS sessions, granting Zscaler access
to both headers and payloads of encrypted traffic for inspection and policy enforcement.
Question # 3
Zscaler Client Connector checks for software updates automatically at which interval?
A. Every 6 hours B. Every 12 hours C. Every 2 hours D. Every 24 hours
Answer: C
Explanation:
Zscaler Client Connector automatically checks for software updates every 2 hours by default.
Question # 4
When configuring Zscaler Private Access, what is the function of the Server Group?
A. Maps FQDNs to IP Addresses B. Maps Applications to FQDNs C. Maps App Connector Groups to Application Segments D. Maps Applications to Application Groups
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Server Group holds the actual backend endpoints - defined by FQDNs (or IPs) and ports - and
effectively maps those FQDNs to their IP addresses so ZPA knows which hosts to steer traffic toward.
Question # 5
In which of the following SaaS apps can you protect data at rest via Zscaler's out-of-band CASBsolution?
A. Yahoo Mail B. Twitter. C. Google Drive. D. Facebook.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Zscalers out of band CASB solution supports data at rest protection for cloud storage platforms like
Google Drive, enabling scanning and governance of files stored there.
Question # 6
Which of the following scenarios would generate a œPatient 0 alert?
A. Zscaler's AI/ML based Smart Browser Isolation was triggered due to a users accessing a newlyregistereddomain. B. A new malicious file was detected by the sandbox due to an œallow and scan First-Time Action inthe sandbox policy. C. A new malicious file was detected by the sandbox due to an œquarantine First-Time Action in thesandbox policy. D. Zscaler detected a HIPAA violation with in-band Data Protection scanning.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A œPatient 0 alert fires when the first instance of a previously unknown file slips through (under an
œAllow and Scan first time action) and is later classified as malicious by the sandbox, identifying that
initial download as the zero day event.
Question # 7
When configuring Applications to be monitored, what probe types can be created?
A. Page Fetch Time Probe and Cloud Path Probe B. Web Probe and Page Fetch Time Probe C. Page Fetch Time Probe and Server Response time Probe D. Web Probe and Cloud Path Probe
Answer: D
Explanation:
When you set up application monitoring in ZDX, you can create Web Probes to measure application
performance from the browser and Cloud Path Probes to map and monitor the network path to
those applications.
Question # 8
Which of the following components is installed on an endpoint to connect users to the Zero TrustExchange regardless of their location - home, work, while traveling, etc.?
A. Client connector B. Private Service Edge C. IPSec/GRE Tunnel D. App Connector
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Zscaler Client Connector is the lightweight agent installed on endpoints - whether at home, in
the office, or on the road - to securely forward user traffic into the Zero Trust Exchange.
Question # 9
Layered defense throughout an organization security platform is valuable because of which of thefollowing?
A. Layered defense increases costs to attackers to operate. B. Layered defense from multiple vendor solutions easily share attacker data. C. Layered defense ensures attackers are prevented eventually. D. Layered defense with multiple endpoint agents protects from attackers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
By deploying multiple, overlapping security controls at different layers, you force adversaries to
overcome each barrier, significantly raising the cost, complexity, and time required for a successful
attack.
Question # 10
You recently deployed an additional App Connector to and existing app connector group. What doyou need to do before starting the zpa-connector service?
A. Copy the group provisioning key to /opt/zscaler/var/provision key B. Monitor the peak CPU and memory utilization of the AC C. Schedule periodic software updates for the agg connector group D. Check the status of the new App Connector in the administration portal
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before you start the zpa-connector service on the new host, you must place the App Connector
Groups provisioning key into /opt/zscaler/var/provision_key so it can register with the control plane.
Question # 11
For a deployment using both ZIA and ZPA set of services, what is the best authentication solution?
A. Use forms Authentication in ZPA and SAML in ZIA B. Use forms Authentication in ZIA and SAML in ZPA C. Configure Authentication using SAML on both ZIA and ZPA D. Use forms Authentication for both ZIA and ZPA
Answer: C
Explanation:
For a unified, seamless experience - and because ZPA only supports SAML while ZIAs recommended
authentication is also SAML - you should configure SAML based SSO on both ZIA and ZP
A. This
ensures one consistent identity flow and eliminates multiple credential prompts across the
platforms.
Question # 12
Is SCIM required for ZIA?
A. Depends B. Maybe C. No D. Yes
Answer: C
Explanation:
SCIM is optional for ZIA user provisioning - you can onboard users via manual CSV import, SAML
attributes, or other identity integrations without implementing SCIM.
Question # 13
The Zscaler platform can protect against malicious files, URLs and content based on a number ofcriteria including reputation type. What type of checking is virus scanning?
A. Malware protection B. File reputation C. SHA-256 hashing D. Site reputation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virus scanning in the Zscaler platform is part of its Malware Protection capability, which inspects file
content against known virus signatures and behaviors.
Question # 14
Which feature does Zscaler Client Connector Z-Tunnel 2.0 enable over Z-Tunnel 1.0?
A. Enables SSL Inspection for Client Connector B. Inspection of all ports and protocols via Cloud Firewall C. Enables Browser Isolation D. Enables multicast traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
Z-Tunnel 2.0 upgrades over 1.0 by carrying all ports and protocols through the Cloud Firewall for
inspection - rather than being limited to just HTTP/HTTPS - ensuring full visibility and control.
Question # 15
What ports and protocols are forwarded to the Zero Trust Exchange when Zscaler Client Connector isusing Tunnel 2.0?
A. TCP ports 80, 443 and 8080 only. B. Any HTTP/HTTPS traffic as well as DNS. C. All TCP and UDP ports as well as ICMP traffic. D. All Web ports as well as FTP and SSH.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Zscaler Client Connectors Tunnel 2.0 uses a packet filter based tunnel that encapsulates all IP traffic -
both TCP and UDP on any port, plus ICMP - to the Zero Trust Exchange
Question # 16
Which Advanced Threats policy can be configured to protect users against a credential attack?
A. Configure Advanced Cloud Sandbox policies. B. Block Suspected phishing sites. C. Enable Watering Hole detection. D. Block Windows executable files from uncategorized websites.
Answer: B
Explanation:
By blocking suspected phishing sites in the Advanced Threats policy, you stop users from reaching
malicious pages engineered to capture their credentials.
Question # 17
What are the two types of Probe supported in ZDX?
A. Web Probes and Cloud Path Probes B. Application Probes and Network Probes C. Page Speed Probes and Connection Speed Probes D. SSaas Probes and Router Probes
Answer: A
Explanation:
ZDX supports two probe types: Web Probes and Cloud Path Probes. Web Probes actively retrieve
web objects to measure application health, while Cloud Path Probes map the end to end network
path to pinpoint transit issues.
Question # 18
Malware Protection inside HTTPS connections is performed using which parts of the Zero TrustExchange?
A. Deception creating decoy files for malware to discover. B. Application Segmentation of users to specific private applications. C. TLS Inspection decrypting traffic to compare signatures for known risks. D. Data Loss Protection comparing saved filenames for known risks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Malware Protection for HTTPS traffic relies on the Zero Trust Exchanges TLS Inspection to decrypt the
SSL/TLS stream, enabling the malware detection engines to scan payloads against known threat
signatures.
Question # 19
What is Zscaler's rotation policy for intermediate certificate authority certificates?
A. Certificates are rotated every 90 days and have a 180-day expiration. B. Lifetime certificates have no expiration date. C. Certificates are rotated every seven days and have a 14-day expiration. D. Certificates are issued dynamically and expire in 24 hours.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Zscalers short lived intermediate CA certificates on the ZIA Service Edges are valid for 14 days and
are automatically rotated every 7 days, minimizing the window of exposure even if a private key is
compromised.
Question # 20
Which of the following are correct request methods when configuring a URL filtering rule with aCaution action?
A. Connect, Get, Head B. Options, Delete, Put C. Get, Delete, Trace D. Connect, Post, Put
Answer: A
Explanation:
When you configure a URL Filtering rule with the Caution action, the only HTTP methods you can
select for that rule are CONNECT, GET, and HEAD.
Question # 21
What is the main purpose of Sandbox functionality?
A. Block malware that we have previously identified B. Build a test environment where we can evaluate the result of policies C. Identify Zero-Day Threats D. Balance thread detection across customers around the world
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary role of Sandbox functionality is to detect and analyze zero day and other unknown
threats by executing suspicious files in an isolated environment before they reach users.
Question # 22
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks are a type of injection, in which malicious scripts are injected intootherwise benign and trusted websites. XSS includes which of the following?
A. Spyware Callback B. Anonymizers C. Cookie Stealing D. IRC Tunneling
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cross Site Scripting enables attackers to run malicious JavaScript in a users browser - often used to
steal session cookies and hijack user sessions, a technique known as cookie stealing.
Question # 23
Which of the following is a key feature of Zscaler Data Protection?
A. Data loss prevention B. Stopping reconnaissance attacks C. DDoS protection D. Log analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data Protection provides comprehensive Data Loss Prevention (DLP) capabilities, inspecting content
in motion to identify, block, or encrypt sensitive information based on policy.
Question # 24
Can Notifications, based on Alert Rules, be sent with methods other than email?
A. Email is the only method for notifications as that is universally applicable and no other way ofsending them makes sense. B. In addition to email, text messages can be sent directly to one cell phone to alert the CISO who isthen coordinating the work on the incident. C. Leading ITSM systems can be connected to the Zero Trust Exchange using a NSS server, which willthen connect to ITSM tools and forwards the alert. D. In addition to email, notifications, based on Alert Rules, can be shared with leading ITSM orUCAAS tools over Webhooks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Beyond email, Alert Rule notifications can be pushed via Webhooks to integrate with ITSM platforms
or UCaaS tools, enabling real time incident management and collaboration in your existing service
desks or messaging systems.
Question # 25
When configuring an inline Data Loss Prevention policy with content inspection, which of thefollowing are used to detect data, allow or block transactions, and notify your organization's auditorwhen a user's transaction triggers a DLP rule?
A. Hosted PAC Files B. Index Tool C. DLP engines D. VPN Credentials
Answer: C
Explanation:
The inline DLP engines are responsible for inspecting content, identifying sensitive data matches,
enforcing allow-or-block actions, and generating notifications (e.g., to your auditor) whenever a DLP
rule is triggered.
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