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Which SD-WAN feature ensures that voice traffic uses the lowest-latency path?
A. Application SLA Profile B. Path Quality Profile C. Data Filtering Profile D. Antivirus Profile
Answer: B
Explanation: Path Quality Profiles define acceptable latency, jitter, and loss. For voice traffic, the firewall dynamically
steers sessions to the best path. Antivirus and data filtering are unrelated, while SLA profiles are higherlevel policies referencing path quality.
Question # 2
Which two parameters can be configured in DoS Protection profiles to mitigate volumetric floods?
A. Maximum Concurrent Sessions B. Max Bandwidth per User C. SYN Flood Thresholds D. UDP Flood Thresholds
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
DoS profiles can enforce SYN and UDP flood thresholds to mitigate volumetric attacks. Concurrent sessions and bandwidth per user belong to QoS or session settings, not direct DoS prevention parameters.
Question # 3
Which two factors can trigger SD-WAN path failover?
A. Excessive Latency B. Application Signature Change C. High Jitter D. Username Change
Answer: A, C
Explanation: Failover in SD-WAN happens when thresholds for latency, jitter, or packet loss are breached. Application
signatures and usernames don’t affect path selection. Failover ensures critical applications remain
functional under degraded link conditions.
Question # 4
Which option describes the function of "Random Early Drop (RED)" in DoS profiles?
A. Terminates SSL sessions B. Preemptively drops packets before thresholds are exceeded C. Blocks specific URL categories D. Filters sensitive data
Answer: B
Explanation:
RED avoids congestion by randomly dropping packets before traffic fully reaches threshold limits,
preventing complete resource exhaustion. It does not terminate SSL, block URLs, or filter sensitive data.
Question # 5
In Panorama-managed SD-WAN, what is the main role of an SD-WAN template?
A. Enforcing file blocking policies B. Centralizing SD-WAN policy deployment across firewalls C. Controlling certificate validity checks D. Creating decryption bypass rules
Answer: B Explanation: SD-WAN templates in Panorama provide centralized configuration and distribution of SD-WAN profiles
across managed devices. This ensures consistency and reduces admin overhead. File blocking, certificate
checks, and decryption bypass are unrelated.
Question # 6
Which two types of DoS Protection policies exist in PAN-OS?
A. Aggregate B. Zone-Based C. Classified D. GlobalProtect
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Palo Alto Networks supports Aggregate DoS policies (protecting entire resources) and Classified policies
(protecting per-source IP). Zone-based protection is not a distinct policy type; it is part of configuration
scope. GlobalProtect is unrelated.
Question # 7
Which metric is critical for SD-WAN path selection when streaming video applications are used?
A. Packet Loss B. Session Timeout C. CPU Utilization D. URL Category
Answer: A
Explanation: Streaming video applications are highly sensitive to packet loss, which directly affects playback quality.
While jitter and latency matter for voice, packet loss has the most significant impact on streaming
continuity. CPU utilization and URL category are unrelated.
Question # 8
Which DoS protection mechanism prevents SYN flood attacks from exhausting server resources?
A. SYN Cookies B. Application Override C. Antivirus Signature Matching D. File Blocking
Answer: A
Explanation:
SYN Cookies mitigate SYN floods by allowing legitimate handshakes to continue while blocking
malicious requests. Antivirus and file blocking detect malware, not floods. Application Override is
unrelated to DoS protection.
Question # 9
Which two link types are typically included in SD-WAN path selection?
A. MPLS B. Broadband Internet C. USB Tethering D. Internal Loopback
Answer: A, B
Explanation: SD-WAN supports MPLS and broadband links for hybrid WAN deployment. USB tethering and
loopbacks are not valid WAN paths. Using multiple link types provides redundancy and cost
optimization.
Question # 10
Which IoT profile capability allows detection of abnormal behavior such as sudden spikes in traffic from
an IoT camera?
A. URL Filtering B. Behavioral Anomaly Detection C. File Blocking D. Log Forwarding
Answer: B
Explanation:
IoT profiles use behavioral analysis to baseline normal device behavior and detect anomalies, such as
abnormal traffic or protocol use. This is crucial for detecting compromised IoT devices. URL filtering and
file blocking are not designed for behavioral analysis.
Question # 11
Which SD-WAN policy object defines what applications are subject to path selection rules?
A. Application SLA Profile B. Application Group C. Device Group D. QoS Profile
Answer: B
Explanation: An Application Group allows administrators to define a set of applications that will share the same SDWAN policy. SLA profiles define thresholds, device groups manage config at scale, and QoS profiles
control bandwidth, not path selection.
Question # 12
Which two types of policies can use IoT security profiles for enforcement?
A. Security Policy B. Decryption Policy C. DoS Protection Policy D. SD-WAN Policy
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
IoT profiles can be applied in security and DoS policies to block or control traffic from risky IoT devices.
They cannot be used in decryption or SD-WAN policies. This integration helps enforce Zero Trust
principles for IoT.
Question # 13
IoT security profiles integrate with which Palo Alto service to classify devices?
A. App-ID B. Device-ID C. GlobalProtect D. Cortex Data Lake
Answer: B
Explanation:
IoT security leverages Device-ID to identify and classify devices connecting to the network. App-ID
detects applications, Cortex Data Lake stores logs, and GlobalProtect is a VPN solution. Device-ID
enhances visibility into unmanaged IoT devices.
Question # 14
What benefit does SD-WAN provide for SaaS applications like Office 365?
A. Encrypts all SaaS traffic B. Routes traffic based on application performance metrics C. Blocks malicious domains automatically D. Reduces the need for antivirus scanning
Answer: B
Explanation: SD-WAN enhances SaaS performance by steering traffic dynamically based on latency, jitter, and loss
metrics. This ensures Office 365 sessions always use the best-performing link. Encryption, domain
blocking, and antivirus remain separate functions.
Question # 15
You must enforce GDPR compliance by preventing users from uploading EU citizen personal data.Which two options should you configure?
A. Predefined data patterns B. Custom regex expressions C. IoT security profiles D. Antivirus signatures
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
GDPR compliance requires preventing personal data exfiltration. This is best done with data filtering
profiles using predefined patterns (like SSNs or credit cards) and custom regex for EU-specific
identifiers. IoT and antivirus profiles are unrelated.
Question # 16
In a security rule using App-ID, when does the firewall finalize application identification?
A. After first packet arrival B. After TCP 3-way handshake only C. After sufficient packets/payload to classify the app D. Only after decryption completes
Answer: C
Explanation: App-ID is dynamic and may need multiple packets to identify the app. Until then, session is allowed by
the rule’s initial match criteria. Once identified, policy can re-evaluate for app-based rules. Decryption, if
applied, occurs before content inspection. Identification stabilizes when signatures match confidently.
Question # 17
Which two data identifiers are available in predefined Data Filtering profiles?
A. Credit Card Numbers B. Social Security Numbers C. Usernames and Passwords D. Malware Signatures
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Palo Alto Networks provides predefined identifiers for credit card numbers and social security numbers.
Administrators can add regex patterns for custom data. Malware signatures are handled by antivirus,
while usernames/passwords need custom regex patterns.
Question # 18
Which User-ID sources can directly map usernames to IPs for policy?
A. GlobalProtect portal B. Syslog parsing from AAA servers C. URL Filtering logs D. XML API from identity providers
Answer: A, B
Explanation: GlobalProtect provides native user mappings on connect. Syslog parsing extracts user/IP from
RADIUS/AD events. URL Filtering logs don’t create identity mappings. XML API can be used, but it’s
the XML API client on the agent/firewall receiving mappings; the “identity provider” alone isn’t the
source.
Question # 19
Which profile should you use to prevent leakage of sensitive corporate intellectual property via uploads?
A. Data Filtering B. Antivirus C. URL Filtering D. DoS Protection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data Filtering detects patterns like credit card numbers, SSNs, or custom regex strings to stop sensitive
data leaving the network. Antivirus and URL Filtering protect against external threats, while DoS
Protection defends against flood attacks, not data leakage.
Question # 20
Which two actions can a Log Forwarding Profile apply when a log entry is generated?
A. Forward to Panorama B. Send to External Syslog C. Trigger SSL Decryption D. Enforce File Blocking
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
A Log Forwarding Profile sends logs to Panorama, syslog servers, or email for centralized visibility. SSL
decryption and file blocking are unrelated enforcement actions, configured in other security profiles.
Question # 21
You attach Antivirus and Vulnerability Protection profiles to a rule. What traffic is inspected?
A. Allowed traffic matching the rule B. Denied traffic matching the rule C. Any intra-zone traffic only D. Only decrypted traffic
Answer: A
Explanation: Security profiles inspect traffic that’s allowed by the policy. Denied sessions don’t undergo content
scanning. Intra-zone/Inter-zone is irrelevant if the rule permits traffic. If decryption is configured and
matches, inspection occurs on decrypted payload; otherwise only clear-text is scanned.
Question # 22
When configuring log forwarding, which transport protocol is most commonly used for external SIEM
integration?
A. UDP Syslog B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Most SIEM integrations rely on syslog over UDP or TCP for log forwarding. SMTP is used for email
alerts, SNMP for device monitoring, and FTP for file transfers. Syslog remains the industry standard for
real-time event ingestion into SIEMs.
Question # 23
A rule uses User-ID and App-ID. Which is true about enforcement?
A. User-ID is checked after App-ID B. App-ID is checked after user mapping and rule match C. User-ID is ignored if App-ID matches D. Both are simultaneously ignored during first packet
Answer: B
Explanation: First, the rule must match on source/destination/zone and user mapping. Once allowed, App-ID classifies
the application. If the application later changes, the firewall can enforce application-based rules through
policy re-evaluation. Neither is ignored; they’re evaluated at appropriate stages.
Question # 24
Which log types can be forwarded using a Log Forwarding Profile?
A. Threat Logs B. HIP Logs C. Tunnel Inspection Logs D. Traffic Logs
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Log Forwarding Profiles allow administrators to forward traffic, threat, system, configuration, and HIP
logs to external systems like Panorama, SIEM, or syslog. Tunnel inspection logs are not a standard log
type. Using these ensures visibility and compliance with monitoring needs.
Question # 25
Which statement about NAT rule match criteria is correct?
A. NAT matches on post-NAT addresses and zones B. NAT matches on pre-NAT addresses and zones C. NAT matches on security profiles D. NAT follows user mappings for match
Answer: B
Explanation: NAT policy matches on original (pre-NAT) source/destination IPs, ports, and zones. This preserves
deterministic selection of the right translation. Security profiles are unrelated to NAT matching. User
mappings don’t affect NAT decisions. Translation is then applied to the egressing packets.
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