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ISC CCSP Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
What are the U.S. Commerce Department controls on technology exports known as?
A. ITAR B. DRM C. EAR D. EAL
Answer: C Explanation: EAR is a Commerce Department program. Evaluation assurance levels are part of the Common Criteria standard from ISO. Digital rights management tools are used for protecting electronic processing of intellectual property
Question # 2
Cloud systems are increasingly used for BCDR solutions for organizations.
What aspect of cloud computing makes their use for BCDR the most attractive?
A. On-demand self-service B. Measured service C. Portability D. Broad network access
Answer: B Explanation: Business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) solutions largely sit idle until they are
actually needed. This traditionally has led to increased costs for an organization because
physical hardware must be purchased and operational but is not used. By using a cloud
system, an organization will only pay for systems when they are being used and only for
the duration of use, thus eliminating the need for extra hardware and costs. Portability is
the ability to easily move services among different cloud providers. Broad network access
allows access to users and staff from anywhere and from different clients, and although this
would be important for a BCDR situation, it is not the best answer in this case. On-demand
self-service allows users to provision services automatically and when needed, and
although this too would be important for BCDR situations, it is not the best answer because
it does not address costs or the biggest benefits to an organization.
Question # 3
With the rapid emergence of cloud computing, very few regulations were in place that
pertained to it specifically, and organizations often had to resort to using a collection of
regulations that were not specific to cloud in order to drive audits and policies.
Which standard from the ISO/IEC was designed specifically for cloud computing?
A. ISO/IEC 27001 B. ISO/IEC 19889 C. ISO/IEC 27001:2015 D. ISO/IEC 27018
Answer: D Explanation: ISO/IEC 27018 was implemented to address the protection of personal and sensitive information within a cloud environment. ISO/IEC 27001 and its later 27001:2015 revision are both general-purpose data security standards. ISO/IEC 19889 is an erroneous answer.
Question # 4
When reviewing the BIA after a cloud migration, the organization should take into account
new factors related to data breach impacts. One of these new factors is:
A. Many states have data breach notification laws. B. Breaches can cause the loss of proprietary data. C. Breaches can cause the loss of intellectual property. D. Legal liability can’t be transferred to the cloud provider.
Answer: D Explanation: State notification laws and the loss of proprietary data/intellectual property pre-existed the cloud; only the lack of ability to transfer liability is ne
Question # 5
DLP solutions can aid in deterring loss due to which of the following?
A. Inadvertent disclosure B. Natural disaster C. Randomization D. Device failure
Answer: A Explanation: DLP solutions may protect against inadvertent disclosure. Randomization is a technique for obscuring data, not a risk to data. DLP tools will not protect against risks from natural disasters, or against impacts due to device failure.
Question # 6
What is the intellectual property protection for the tangible expression of a creative idea?
A. Trade secret B. Copyright C. Trademark D. Patent
Answer: B Explanation: Copyrights are protected tangible expressions of creative works. The other answers listed are answers to subsequent questions.
Question # 7
Which of the following is NOT considered a type of data loss?
A. Data corruption B. Stolen by hackers C. Accidental deletion D. Lost or destroyed encryption keys
Answer: B Explanation: The exposure of data by hackers is considered a data breach. Data loss focuses on the data availability rather than security. Data loss occurs when data becomes lost, unavailable, or destroyed, when it should not have been.
Question # 8
All of the following are techniques to enhance the portability of cloud data, in order to
minimize the potential of vendor lock-in except:
A. Ensure there are no physical limitations to moving B. Use DRM and DLP solutions widely throughout the cloud operation C. Ensure favorable contract terms to support portability D. Avoid proprietary data formats
Answer: B Explanation: DRM and DLP are used for increased authentication/access control and egress monitoring, respectively, and would actually decrease portability instead of enhancing it.
Question # 9
Which of the following statements about Type 1 hypervisors is true?
A. The hardware vendor and software vendor are different. B. The hardware vendor and software vendor are the same C. The hardware vendor provides an open platform for software vendors. D. The hardware vendor and software vendor should always be different for the sake of security.
Answer: B Explanation: With a Type 1 hypervisor, the management software and hardware are tightly tied together and provided by the same vendor on a closed platform. This allows for optimal security, performance, and support. The other answers are all incorrect descriptions of a Type 1 hypervisor.
Question # 10
Which data protection strategy would be useful for a situation where the ability to remove
sensitive data from a set is needed, but a requirement to retain the ability to map back to
the original values is also present?
A. Masking B. Tokenization C. Encryption D. Anonymization
Answer: B Explanation: Tokenization involves the replacement of sensitive data fields with key or token values, which can ultimately be mapped back to the original, sensitive data values. Masking refers to the overall approach to covering sensitive data, and anonymization is a type of masking, where indirect identifiers are removed from a data set to prevent the mapping back of data to an individual. Encryption refers to the overall process of protecting data via key pairs and protecting confidentiality.
Question # 11
Which data sanitation method is also commonly referred to as "zeroing"?
A. Overwriting B. Nullification C. Blanking D. Deleting
Answer: A Explanation: The zeroing of data--or the writing of null values or arbitrary data to ensure deletion has
been fully completed--is officially referred to as overwriting. Nullification, deleting, and
blanking are provided as distractor terms.
Question # 12
Which cloud service category most commonly uses client-side key management systems?
A. Software as a Service B. Infrastructure as a Service C. Platform as a Service D. Desktop as a Service
Answer: A Explanation: SaaS most commonly uses client-side key management. With this type of implementation, the software for doing key management is supplied by the cloud provider, but is hosted and run by the cloud customer. This allows for full integration with the SaaS implementation, but also provides full control to the cloud customer. Although the cloud provider may offer software for performing key management to the cloud customers, with the Infrastructure, Platform, and Desktop as a Service categories, the customers would largely be responsible for their own options and implementations and would not be bound by the offerings from the cloud provider.
Question # 13
What are the U.S. State Department controls on technology exports known as?
A. DRM B. ITAR C. EAR D. EAL
Answer: B Explanation: ITAR is a Department of State program. Evaluation assurance levels are part of the Common Criteria standard from ISO. Digital rights management tools are used for protecting electronic processing of intellectual property.
Question # 14
There are many situations when testing a BCDR plan is appropriate or mandated. Which of the following would not be a necessary time to test a BCDR plan?
A. After software updates B. After regulatory changes C. After major configuration changes D. Annually
Answer: B Explanation: Regulatory changes by themselves would not trigger a need for new testing of a BCDR
plan. Any changes necessary for regulatory compliance would be accomplished through
configuration changes or software updates, which in turn would then trigger the necessary
new testing. Annual testing is crucial to any BCDR plan. Also, any time major configuration
changes or software updates are done, the plan should be evaluated and tested to ensure
it is still valid and complete.
Question # 15
BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but only
those deemed critical to their business.
Which concept pertains to the amount of data and services needed to reach the
predetermined level of operations?
A. SRE B. RPO C. RSL D. RTO
Answer: B Explanation: The recovery point objective (RPO) sets and defines the amount of data an organization must have available or accessible to reach the predetermined level of operations necessary during a BCDR situation. The recovery time objective (RTO) measures the amount of time necessary to recover operations to meet the BCDR plan. The recovery service level (RSL) measures the percentage of operations that would be recovered during a BCDR situation. SRE is provided as an erroneous response.c
Question # 16
Which of the following best describes SAML?
A. A standard used for directory synchronization B. A standard for developing secure application management logistics C. A standard for exchanging usernames and passwords across devices. D. A standards for exchanging authentication and authorization data between security domains.
Answer: D
Question # 17
Tokenization requires two distinct _________________ .
A. Personnel B. Authentication factors C. Encryption keys D. Databases
Answer: D Explanation: In order to implement tokenization, there will need to be two databases: the database containing the raw, original data, and the token database containing tokens that map to original data. Having two-factor authentication is nice, but certainly not required. Encryption keys are not necessary for tokenization. Two-person integrity does not have anything to do with tokenization.
Question # 18
A data custodian is responsible for which of the following?
A. Data context B. Data content C. The safe custody, transport, storage of the data, and implementation of business rules D. Logging access and alerts
Answer: C
Explanation:
A data custodian is responsible for the safe custody, transport, and storage of data, and the
implementation of business rolesc
Question # 19
When using an IaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?
A. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. B. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the auditor is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. C. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the provider is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. D. To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the consumer is not able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications.
Answer: A Explanation: According to “The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing,” in IaaS, “the capability provided to
the consumer is to provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental
computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software,
which can include operating systems and applications. The consumer does not manage or
control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage,
and deployed applications; and possibly limited control of select networking components
(e.g., host firewalls).
Question # 20
Because cloud providers will not give detailed information out about their infrastructures
and practices to the general public, they will often use established auditing reports to
ensure public trust, where the reputation of the auditors serves for assurance.
Which type of audit reports can be used for general public trust assurances?
A. SOC 2 B. SAS-70 C. SOC 3 D. SOC 1
Answer: C Explanation: SOC Type 3 audit reports are very similar to SOC Type 2, with the exception that they are intended for general release and public audiences.SAS-70 audits have been deprecated. SOC Type 1 audit reports have a narrow scope and are intended for very limited release, whereas SOC Type 2 audit reports are intended for wider audiences but not general release.
Question # 21
When an organization is considering the use of cloud services for BCDR planning and
solutions, which of the following cloud concepts would be the most important?
A. Reversibility B. Elasticity C. Interoperability D. Portability
Answer: D Explanation: Portability is the ability for a service or system to easily move among different cloud providers. This is essential for using a cloud solution for BCDR because vendor lock-in would inhibit easily moving and setting up services in the event of a disaster, or it would necessitate a large number of configuration or component changes to implement.
Interoperability, or the ability to reuse components for other services or systems, would not
be an important factor for BCDR. Reversibility, or the ability to remove all data quickly and
completely from a cloud environment, would be important at the end of a disaster, but
would not be important during setup and deployment. Elasticity, or the ability to resize
resources to meet current demand, would be very beneficial to a BCDR situation, but not
as vital as portability
Question # 22
Maintenance mode requires all of these actions except:
A. Remove all active production instances B. Ensure logging continues C. Initiate enhanced security controls D. Prevent new logins
Answer: C Explanation: While the other answers are all steps in moving from normal operations to maintenance mode, we do not necessarily initiate any enhanced security controls
Question # 23
On large distributed systems with pooled resources, cloud computing relies on extensive
orchestration to maintain the environment and the constant provisioning of resources.
Which of the following is crucial to the orchestration and automation of networking
resources within a cloud?
A. DNSSEC B. DNS C. DCOM D. DHCP
Answer: D Explanation: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically configures network
settings for a host so that these settings do not need to be configured on the host statically.
Given the rapid and programmatic provisioning of resources within a cloud environment,
this capability is crucial to cloud operations. Both DNS and its security-integrity extension
DNSSEC provide name resolution to IP addresses, but neither is used for the configuration
of network settings on a host. DCOM refers to the Distributed Component Object Model,
which was developed by Microsoft as a means to request services across a network, and is
not used for network configurations at all.
Question # 24
Web application firewalls (WAFs) are designed primarily to protect applications from
common attacks like:
A. Ransomware B. Syn floods C. XSS and SQL injection D. Password cracking
Answer: C Explanation:
WAFs detect how the application interacts with the environment, so they are optimal for
detecting and refuting things like SQL injection and XSS. Password cracking, syn floods,
and ransomware usually aren’t taking place in the same way as injection and XSS, and
they are better addressed with controls at the router and through the use of HIDS, NIDS,
and antimalware tools.
Question # 25
Which format is the most commonly used standard for exchanging information within a
federated identity system?
A. XML B. HTML C. SAML D. JSON
Answer: C Explanation: Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the most common data format for
information exchange within a federated identity system. It is used to transmit and
exchange authentication and authorization data.XML is similar to SAML, but it's used for
general-purpose data encoding and labeling and is not used for the exchange of
authentication and authorization data in the way that SAML is for federated systems. JSON
is used similarly to XML, as a text-based data exchange format that typically uses attributevalue pairings, but it's not used for authentication and authorization exchange. HTML is
used only for encoding web pages for web browsers and is not used for data exchange--
and certainly not in a federated system.
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