Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)
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Exam Code
CISSP
Exam Name
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)
Questions
1485 Questions Answers With Explanation
Update Date
04, 20, 2026
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ISC2 CISSP Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
A software development company found odd behavior in some recently developed
software, creating a need for a more thorough code review. What is the MOST effective
argument for a more thorough code review?
A. It will increase the flexibility of the applications developed. B. It will increase accountability with the customers. C. It will impede the development process. D. lt will reduce the potential for vulnerabilities.
Answer: D
Question # 2
How should the retention period for an organization's social media content be defined?
A. Wireless Access Points (AP) B. Token-based authentication C. Host-based firewalls D. Trusted platforms
Answer: C
Question # 3
When designing a new Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) network, an organization's top
concern is preventing unauthorized users from accessing the VoIP network. Which of the
following will BEST help secure the VoIP network?
A. Transport Layer Security (TLS) B. 802.1x C. 802.119 D. Web application firewall (WAF)
Answer: A
Question # 4
Which of the following factors should be considered characteristics of Attribute Based
Access Control (ABAC) in terms of the attributes used?
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) and Discretionary Access Control (DAC) B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) and Access Control List (ACL) C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Mandatory Access Control (MAC) D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Access Control List (ACL)
Answer: D
Question # 5
What is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and reporting metrics for a security awareness,
training, and education program?
A. Make all stakeholders aware of the program's progress. B. Measure the effect of the program on the organization's workforce. C. Facilitate supervision of periodic training events. D. Comply with legal regulations and document due diligence in security practices.
Answer: C
Question # 6
In a DevOps environment, which of the following actions is MOST necessary to have
confidence in the quality of the changes being made?
A. Prepare to take corrective actions quickly. B. Receive approval from the change review board. C. Review logs for any anomalies. D. Automate functionality testing.
Answer: B
Question # 7
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has delegated responsibility of their system security to the
head of the information technology (IT) department. While corporate policy dictates that
only the CIO can make decisions on the level of data protection required, technical
implementation decisions are done by the head of the IT department. Which of the
following BEST describes the security role filled by the head of the IT department?
A. System analyst B. System security officer C. System processor D. System custodian
Answer: D
Question # 8
During a Disaster Recovery (DR) simulation, it is discovered that the shared recovery site
lacks adequate data restoration capabilities to support the implementation of multiple plans
simultaneously. What would be impacted by this fact if left unchanged?
A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) B. Recovery Time Objective (RTO) C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA) D. Return on Investment (ROI)
Answer: A
Question # 9
In a multi-tenant cloud environment, what approach will secure logical access to assets?
A. Hybrid cloud B. Transparency/Auditability of administrative access C. Controlled configuration management (CM) D. Virtual private cloud (VPC)
Answer: D
Question # 10
A company is moving from the V model to Agile development. How can the information
security department BEST ensure that secure design principles are implemented in the
new methodology?
A. All developers receive mandatory targeted information security training. B. The non-financial information security requirements remain mandatory for the new
model. C. The information security department performs an information security assessment after
each sprint. D. Information security requirements are captured in mandatory user stories.
Answer: D
Question # 11
Which of the following is the BEST method to gather evidence from a computer's hard
drive?
A. Disk duplication B. Disk replacement C. Forensic signature D. Forensic imaging
Answer: D
Question # 12
What is the FIRST step when developing an Information Security Continuous Monitoring
(ISCM) program?
A. Establish an ISCM technical architecture. B. Collect the security-related information required for metrics, assessments, and reporting. C. Establish an ISCM program determining metrics, status monitoring frequencies, and control assessment frequencies.
D. Define an ISCM strategy based on risk tolerance.
Answer: D
Question # 13
The security team is notified that a device on the network is infected with malware. Which
of the following is MOST effective in enabling the device to be quickly located and
remediated?
A. data loss protection (DLP) B. Intrusion detection C. Vulnerability scanner D. Information Technology Asset Management (ITAM)
Answer: D
Question # 14
Which of the following BEST describes the objectives of the Business Impact Analysis
(BIA)?
A. Identifying the events and environmental factors that can adversely affect an
organization B. Identifying what is important and critical based on disruptions that can affect the
organization. C. Establishing the need for a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) based on threats that can
affect an organization D. Preparing a program to create an organizational awareness for executing the Business
Continuity Plan (BCP)
Answer: B
Question # 15
Computer forensics requires which of the following MAIN steps?
A. Announce the incident to responsible sections, analyze the data, assimilate the data for
correlation B. Take action to contain the damage, announce the incident to responsible sections,
analyze the data C. Acquire the data without altering, authenticate the recovered data, analyze the data D. Access the data before destruction, assimilate the data for correlation, take action to
contain the damage
Answer: B
Question # 16
An attacker is able to remain indefinitely logged into a exploit to remain on the web
service?
A. Alert management B. Password management C. Session management D. Identity management (IM)
Answer: C
Question # 17
Which of the following would qualify as an exception to the "right to be forgotten" of the
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?
A. For the establishment, exercise, or defense of legal claims B. The personal data has been lawfully processed and collected C. The personal data remains necessary to the purpose for which it was collected D. For the reasons of private interest
Answer: C
Question # 18
The initial security categorization should be done early in the system life cycle and should
be reviewed periodically. Why is it important for this to be done correctly?
A. It determines the security requirements. B. It affects other steps in the certification and accreditation process. C. It determines the functional and operational requirements. D. The system engineering process works with selected security controls.
Answer: B
Question # 19
When defining a set of security controls to mitigate a risk, which of the following actions
MUST occur?
A. Each control's effectiveness must be evaluated individually. B. Each control must completely mitigate the risk. C. The control set must adequately mitigate the risk. D. The control set must evenly divided the risk.
Answer: A
Question # 20
When conducting a third-party risk assessment of a new supplier, which of the following
reports should be reviewed to confirm the operating effectiveness of the security,
availability, confidentiality, and privacy trust principles?
A. Service Organization Control (SOC) 1, Type 2 B. Service Organization Control (SOC) 2, Type 2 C. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 D. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27002
Answer: B
Question # 21
During a penetration test, what are the three PRIMARY objectives of the planning phase?
A. Determine testing goals, identify rules of engagement and conduct an initial discovery
scan. B. Finalize management approval, determine testing goals, and gather port and service
information. C. Identify rules of engagement, finalize management approval, and determine testing
goals. D. Identify rules of engagement, document management approval, and collect system and
application information.
Answer: D
Question # 22
What is the PRIMARY reason that a bit-level copy is more desirable than a file-level copy
when replicating a hard drive's contents for an e-discovery investigation?
A. Files that have been deleted will be transferred. B. The file and directory structure is retained. C. File-level security settings will be preserved. D. The corruption of files is less likely.
Answer: A
Question # 23
An organization wants to migrate to Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) to save on telephony
expenses. Which of the following security related statements should be
considered in the decision-making process?
A. Cloud telephony is less secure and more expensive than digital telephony services. B. SIP services are more secure when used with multi-layer security proxies. C. H.323 media gateways must be used to ensure end-to-end security tunnels. D. Given the behavior of SIP traffic, additional security controls would be required.
Answer: C
Question # 24
When assessing the audit capability of an application, which of the following activities is
MOST important?
A. Determine if audit records contain sufficient information. B. Review security plan for actions to be taken in the event of audit failure. C. Verify if sufficient storage is allocated for audit records. D. Identify procedures to investigate suspicious activity.
Answer: C
Question # 25
Which of the following vulnerabilities can be BEST detected using automated analysis?
A. Valid cross-site request forgery (CSRF) vulnerabilities B. Multi-step process attack vulnerabilities C. Business logic flaw vulnerabilities D. Typical source code vulnerabilities
Answer: D
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