ISC2 CISSP dumps

ISC2 CISSP Exam Dumps

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)
864 Reviews

Exam Code CISSP
Exam Name Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)
Questions 1485 Questions Answers With Explanation
Update Date 04, 20, 2026
Price Was : $81 Today : $45 Was : $99 Today : $55 Was : $117 Today : $65

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ISC2 CISSP Sample Question Answers

Question # 1

A software development company found odd behavior in some recently developed software, creating a need for a more thorough code review. What is the MOST effective argument for a more thorough code review?

A. It will increase the flexibility of the applications developed.  
B. It will increase accountability with the customers.  
C. It will impede the development process.  
D. lt will reduce the potential for vulnerabilities.  



Question # 2

How should the retention period for an organization's social media content be defined? 

A. Wireless Access Points (AP)  
B. Token-based authentication  
C. Host-based firewalls  
D. Trusted platforms  



Question # 3

When designing a new Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) network, an organization's top concern is preventing unauthorized users from accessing the VoIP network. Which of the following will BEST help secure the VoIP network?

A. Transport Layer Security (TLS)  
B. 802.1x  
C. 802.119  
D. Web application firewall (WAF)



Question # 4

Which of the following factors should be considered characteristics of Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC) in terms of the attributes used?

A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) and Discretionary Access Control (DAC)  
B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) and Access Control List (ACL)  
C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Mandatory Access Control (MAC)  
D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Access Control List (ACL)  



Question # 5

What is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and reporting metrics for a security awareness, training, and education program?

A. Make all stakeholders aware of the program's progress.  
B. Measure the effect of the program on the organization's workforce.  
C. Facilitate supervision of periodic training events.  
D. Comply with legal regulations and document due diligence in security practices.  



Question # 6

In a DevOps environment, which of the following actions is MOST necessary to have confidence in the quality of the changes being made?

A. Prepare to take corrective actions quickly.  
B. Receive approval from the change review board.  
C. Review logs for any anomalies.  
D. Automate functionality testing.



Question # 7

A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has delegated responsibility of their system security to the head of the information technology (IT) department. While corporate policy dictates that only the CIO can make decisions on the level of data protection required, technical implementation decisions are done by the head of the IT department. Which of the following BEST describes the security role filled by the head of the IT department?

A. System analyst  
B. System security officer  
C. System processor  
D. System custodian  



Question # 8

During a Disaster Recovery (DR) simulation, it is discovered that the shared recovery site lacks adequate data restoration capabilities to support the implementation of multiple plans simultaneously. What would be impacted by this fact if left unchanged?

A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) 
B. Recovery Time Objective (RTO) 
C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA) 
D. Return on Investment (ROI) 



Question # 9

In a multi-tenant cloud environment, what approach will secure logical access to assets? 

A. Hybrid cloud  
B. Transparency/Auditability of administrative access  
C. Controlled configuration management (CM)  
D. Virtual private cloud (VPC)



Question # 10

A company is moving from the V model to Agile development. How can the information security department BEST ensure that secure design principles are implemented in the new methodology?

A. All developers receive mandatory targeted information security training.  
B. The non-financial information security requirements remain mandatory for the new model. 
C. The information security department performs an information security assessment after each sprint.
D. Information security requirements are captured in mandatory user stories.  



Question # 11

Which of the following is the BEST method to gather evidence from a computer's hard drive?

A. Disk duplication  
B. Disk replacement  
C. Forensic signature  
D. Forensic imaging  



Question # 12

What is the FIRST step when developing an Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) program? 

A. Establish an ISCM technical architecture.  
B. Collect the security-related information required for metrics, assessments, and reporting.  
C. Establish an ISCM program determining metrics, status monitoring frequencies, and control assessment frequencies.  
D. Define an ISCM strategy based on risk tolerance.  



Question # 13

The security team is notified that a device on the network is infected with malware. Which of the following is MOST effective in enabling the device to be quickly located and remediated?

A. data loss protection (DLP)  
B. Intrusion detection  
C. Vulnerability scanner  
D. Information Technology Asset Management (ITAM)  



Question # 14

Which of the following BEST describes the objectives of the Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

A. Identifying the events and environmental factors that can adversely affect an organization
B. Identifying what is important and critical based on disruptions that can affect the organization. 
C. Establishing the need for a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) based on threats that can affect an organization 
D. Preparing a program to create an organizational awareness for executing the Business Continuity Plan (BCP) 



Question # 15

Computer forensics requires which of the following MAIN steps? 

A. Announce the incident to responsible sections, analyze the data, assimilate the data for correlation
B. Take action to contain the damage, announce the incident to responsible sections, analyze the data 
C. Acquire the data without altering, authenticate the recovered data, analyze the data  
D. Access the data before destruction, assimilate the data for correlation, take action to contain the damage 



Question # 16

An attacker is able to remain indefinitely logged into a exploit to remain on the web service?

A. Alert management  
B. Password management  
C. Session management  
D. Identity management (IM)  



Question # 17

Which of the following would qualify as an exception to the "right to be forgotten" of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?

A. For the establishment, exercise, or defense of legal claims  
B. The personal data has been lawfully processed and collected  
C. The personal data remains necessary to the purpose for which it was collected  
D. For the reasons of private interest  



Question # 18

The initial security categorization should be done early in the system life cycle and should be reviewed periodically. Why is it important for this to be done correctly?

A. It determines the security requirements.
B. It affects other steps in the certification and accreditation process.  
C. It determines the functional and operational requirements.  
D. The system engineering process works with selected security controls.  



Question # 19

When defining a set of security controls to mitigate a risk, which of the following actions MUST occur?

A. Each control's effectiveness must be evaluated individually.  
B. Each control must completely mitigate the risk.  
C. The control set must adequately mitigate the risk.  
D. The control set must evenly divided the risk.  



Question # 20

When conducting a third-party risk assessment of a new supplier, which of the following reports should be reviewed to confirm the operating effectiveness of the security, availability, confidentiality, and privacy trust principles?

A. Service Organization Control (SOC) 1, Type 2  
B. Service Organization Control (SOC) 2, Type 2  
C. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001  
D. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27002  



Question # 21

During a penetration test, what are the three PRIMARY objectives of the planning phase? 

A. Determine testing goals, identify rules of engagement and conduct an initial discovery scan. 
B. Finalize management approval, determine testing goals, and gather port and service information. 
C. Identify rules of engagement, finalize management approval, and determine testing goals. 
D. Identify rules of engagement, document management approval, and collect system and application information. 



Question # 22

What is the PRIMARY reason that a bit-level copy is more desirable than a file-level copy when replicating a hard drive's contents for an e-discovery investigation?

A. Files that have been deleted will be transferred.  
B. The file and directory structure is retained.  
C. File-level security settings will be preserved.  
D. The corruption of files is less likely.



Question # 23

An organization wants to migrate to Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) to save on telephony expenses. Which of the following security related statements should be considered in the decision-making process? 

A. Cloud telephony is less secure and more expensive than digital telephony services.  
B. SIP services are more secure when used with multi-layer security proxies.  
C. H.323 media gateways must be used to ensure end-to-end security tunnels.  
D. Given the behavior of SIP traffic, additional security controls would be required.  



Question # 24

When assessing the audit capability of an application, which of the following activities is MOST important?

A. Determine if audit records contain sufficient information.  
B. Review security plan for actions to be taken in the event of audit failure.  
C. Verify if sufficient storage is allocated for audit records.  
D. Identify procedures to investigate suspicious activity.  



Question # 25

Which of the following vulnerabilities can be BEST detected using automated analysis? 

A. Valid cross-site request forgery (CSRF) vulnerabilities  
B. Multi-step process attack vulnerabilities
C. Business logic flaw vulnerabilities  
D. Typical source code vulnerabilities  



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