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ISC CCSP Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
Different security testing methodologies offer different strategies and approaches to testing
systems, requiring security personnel to determine the best type to use for their specific
circumstances.
What does dynamic application security testing (DAST) NOT entail that SAST does?
A. Discovery B. Knowledge of the system C. Scanning D. Probing
Answer: B Explanation: Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is considered "black-box" testing and begins with no inside knowledge of the application or its configurations. Everything about it must be discovered during its testing. As with most types of testing, dynamic application security testing (DAST) involves probing, scanning, and a discovery process for system information.
Question # 2
When data discovery is undertaken, three main approaches or strategies are commonly
used to determine what the type of data, its format, and composition are for the purposes of
classification.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main approaches to data discovery?
A. Content analysis B. Hashing C. Labels D. Metadata
Answer: B Explanation: Hashing involves taking a block of data and, through the use of a one-way operation,
producing a fixed-size value that can be used for comparison with other data. It is used
primarily for protecting data and allowing for rapid comparison when matching data values
such as passwords. Labels involve looking for header information or other categorizations
of data to determine its type and possible classifications. Metadata involves looking at
information attributes of the data, such as creator, application, type, and so on, in
determining classification. Content analysis involves examining the actual data itself for its
composition and classification level.
Question # 3
In a cloud environment, encryption should be used for all the following, except:
A. Secure sessions/VPN B. Long-term storage of data C. Near-term storage of virtualized images D. Profile formatting
Answer: D Explanation: All of these activities should incorporate encryption, except for profile formatting, which is a made-up term.
Question # 4
IRM solutions allow an organization to place different restrictions on data usage than would
otherwise be possible through traditional security controls.
Which of the following controls would be possible with IRM that would not with traditional
security controls?
A. Copy B. Read C. Delete D. Print
Answer: D Explanation: Traditional security controls would not be able to restrict a user from printing something that they have the ability to access and read, but IRM solutions would allow for such a restriction. If a user has permissions to read a file, he can also copy the file or print it under traditional controls, and the ability to modify or write will give the user the ability to delete.
Question # 5
Which of the following is considered a technological control?
A. Firewall software B. Firing personnel C. Fireproof safe D. Fire extinguisher
Answer: A Explanation:
A firewall is a technological control. The safe and extinguisher are physical controls and
firing someone is an administrative control.
Question # 6
Which ITIL component is an ongoing, iterative process of tracking all deployed and
configured resources that an organization uses and depends on, whether they are hosted
in a traditional data center or a cloud?
A. Problem management B. Continuity management C. Availability management D. Configuration management
Answer: D Explanation: Configuration management tracks and maintains detailed information about all IT components within an organization. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Continuity management (or business continuity management) is focused on planning for the successful restoration of systems or services after an unexpected outage, incident, or disaster. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur
Question # 7
Data labels could include all the following, except:
A. Data value B. Data of scheduled destruction C. Date data was created D. Data owner
Answer: A Explanation: All the others might be included in data labels, but we don’t usually include data value, since it is prone to change frequently, and because it might not be information we want to disclose to anyone who does not have need to know
Question # 8
Which of the following technologies is NOT commonly used for accessing systems and services in a cloud environment in a secure manner?
A. KVM B. HTTPS C. VPN D. TLS
Answer: A Explanation: A keyboard-video-mouse (KVM) system is commonly used for directly accessing server
terminals in a data center. It is not a method that would be possible within a cloud
environment, primarily due to the use virtualized systems, but also because only the cloud
provider's staff would be allowed the physical access to hardware systems that's provided
by a KVM. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), virtual private network (VPN), and
Transport Layer Security (TLS) are all technologies and protocols that are widely used with
cloud implementations for secure access to systems and services.
Question # 9
The goals of SIEM solution implementation include all of the following, except:
A. Dashboarding B. Performance enhancement C. Trend analysis D. Centralization of log streams
Answer: B Explanation: SIEM does not intend to provide any enhancement of performance; in fact, a SIEM solution may decrease performance because of additional overhead. All the rest are goals of SIEM implementations.
Question # 10
Which of the following are attributes of cloud computing?
A. Minimal management effort and shared resources B. High cost and unique resources C. Rapid provisioning and slow release of resources D. Limited access and service provider interaction
Answer: A Explanation: Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
Question # 11
Data masking can be used to provide all of the following functionality, except:
A. Secure remote access B. test data in sandboxed environments C. Authentication of privileged users D. Enforcing least privilege
Answer: C Explanation: Data masking does not support authentication in any way. All the others are excellent use cases for data masking.
Question # 12
What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers that
makes it unique compared to other common security testing methodologies?
A. Live testing B. Source code access C. Production system scanning D. Injection attempts
Answer: B
Explanation:
Static application security testing (SAST) is conducted against offline systems with
previous knowledge of them, including their source code. Live testing is not part of static
testing but rather is associated with dynamic testing. Production system scanning is not
appropriate because static testing is done against offline systems. Injection attempts are
done with many different types of testing and are not unique to one particular type. It is
therefore not the best answer to the question.
Question # 13
What is one of the reasons a baseline might be changed?
A. Numerous change requests B. To reduce redundancy C. Natural disaster D. Power fluctuation
Answer: A Explanation: If the CMB is receiving numerous change requests to the point where the amount of requests would drop by modifying the baseline, then that is a good reason to change the baseline. None of the other reasons should involve the baseline at all.
Question # 14
When using a PaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?
A. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The provider does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment. B. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment. C. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the consumer supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment. D. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure provider-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to “The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing,” in PaaS, “the capability provided to
the consumer is to deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired
applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools supported by the provider. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud
infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control
over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the applicationhosting environment.
Question # 15
What are third-party providers of IAM functions for the cloud environment?
A. AESs B. SIEMs C. DLPs D. CASBs
Answer: D Explanation: Data loss, leak prevention, and protection is a family of tools used to reduce the possibility of unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information. SIEMs are tools used to collate and
manage log data. AES is an encryption standard.
Question # 16
A variety of security systems can be integrated within a network--some that just monitor for
threats and issue alerts, and others that take action based on signatures, behavior, and
other types of rules to actively stop potential threats.
Which of the following types of technologies is best described here?
A. IDS B. IPS C. Proxy D. Firewall
Answer: B Explanation: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) can inspect traffic and detect any suspicious traffic based on a variety of factors, but it can also actively block such traffic. Although an IDS can detect the same types of suspicious traffic as an IPS, it is only design to alert, not to block. A firewall is only concerned with IP addresses, ports, and protocols; it cannot be used for the signature-based detection of traffic. A proxy can limit or direct traffic based on more extensive factors than a network firewall can, but it's not capable of using the same signature detection rules as an IPS.
Question # 17
Which component of ITIL pertains to planning, coordinating, executing, and validating
changes and rollouts to production environments?
A. Release management B. Availability management C. Problem management D. Change management
Answer: A Explanation: Release management involves planning, coordinating, executing, and validating changes and rollouts to the production environment. Change management is a higher-level component than release management and also involves stakeholder and management approval, rather than specifically focusing the actual release itself. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur
Question # 18
All of these are methods of data discovery, except:
A. Label-based B. User-based C. Content-based D. Metadata-based
Answer: B
Explanation:
All the others are valid methods of data discovery; user-based is a red herring with no
meaning.
Question # 19
Which of the following terms is NOT a commonly used category of risk acceptance?
A. Moderate B. Critical C. Minimal D. Accepted
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation Accepted is not a risk acceptance category. The risk acceptance categories are minimal, low, moderate, high, and critical.
Question # 20
Which of the following is not an example of a highly regulated environment?
A. Financial services B. Healthcare C. Public companies D. Wholesale or distribution
Answer: D Explanation:
Wholesalers or distributors are generally not regulated, although the products they sell may
be.
Question # 21
Which of the following is a management role, versus a technical role, as it pertains to data
management and oversight?
A. Data owner B. Data processor C. Database administrator D. Data custodian
Answer: A Explanation: Data owner is a management role that's responsible for all aspects of how data is used and protected. The database administrator, data custodian, and data processor are all technical roles that involve the actual use and consumption of data, or the implementation of security controls and policies with the data.
Question # 22
Just like the risk management process, the BCDR planning process has a defined
sequence of steps and processes to follow to ensure the production of a comprehensive
and successful plan.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps for a BCDR plan?
A. Define scope, gather requirements, assess risk, implement B. Define scope, gather requirements, implement, assess risk C. Gather requirements, define scope, implement, assess risk D. Gather requirements, define scope, assess risk, implement
Answer: A Explanation: The correct sequence for a BCDR plan is to define the scope, gather requirements based on the scope, assess overall risk, and implement the plan. The other sequences provided are not in the correct order.
Question # 23
In attempting to provide a layered defense, the security practitioner should convince senior
management to include security controls of which type?
A. Physical B. All of the above C. technological D. Administrative
Answer: B Explanation: Layered defense calls for a diverse approach to security.
Question # 24
DLP solutions can aid in deterring loss due to which of the following?
A. Device failure B. Randomization C. Inadvertent disclosure D. Natural disaster
Answer: C Explanation: DLP solutions may protect against inadvertent disclosure. Randomization is a technique for obscuring data, not a risk to data. DLP tools will not protect against risks from natural disasters, or against impacts due to device failure.
Question # 25
In addition to whatever audit results the provider shares with the customer, what other
mechanism does the customer have to ensure trust in the provider’s performance and
duties?
A. HIPAA B. The contract C. Statutes D. Security control matrix
Answer: B Explanation: The contract between the provider and customer enhances the customer’s trust by holding the provider financially liable for negligence or inadequate service (although the customer remains legally liable for all inadvertent disclosures). Statutes, however, largely leave customers liable. The security control matrix is a tool for ensuring compliance with regulations. HIPAA is a statute.
Feedback That Matters: Reviews of Our ISC CCSP Dumps
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