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Isaca CRISC dumps

Isaca CRISC Exam Dumps

Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
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Exam Code CRISC
Exam Name Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Questions 1938 Questions Answers With Explanation
Update Date 04, 25, 2026
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Isaca CRISC Sample Question Answers

Question # 1

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following deficiencies should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A. Unclear organizational risk appetite 
B. Lack of senior management participation 
C. Use of highly customized control frameworks 
D. Reliance on qualitative analysis methods 



Question # 2

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process? 

A. Board of directors 
B. Risk officers
 C. Line management 
D. Senior management 



Question # 3

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern when changes to firewall rules do not follow change management requirements? 

A. Potential audit findings 
B. Insufficient risk governance 
C. Potential business impact 
D. Inaccurate documentation 



Question # 4

An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system? 

A. Chief information security officer 
B. Business process owner 
C. Chief risk officer 
D. IT controls manager 



Question # 5

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk? 

A. Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes 
B. Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations 
C. Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder 
D. Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior 



Question # 6

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments? 

A. To provide input to the organization's risk appetite 
B. To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness 
C. To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability 
D. To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans 



Question # 7

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)? 

A. KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached. 
B. KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred. 
C. KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization. 
D. KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile. 



Question # 8

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training? 

A. Management's expectations 
B. Corporate risk profile 
C. Recent security incidents 
D. The current risk management capability 



Question # 9

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure employee adherence to organizational security policies? 

A. Total number of security policy audit findings 
B. Total number of regulatory violations 
C. Total number of security policy exceptions 
D. Total number of opened phishing emails 



Question # 10

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization? 

A. The effectiveness of compensating controls 
B. The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss 
C. The residual risk affected by preventive controls 
D. The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate 



Question # 11

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining risk appetite? 

A. Service level agreements (SLAs) 
B. Risk heat map
C. IT capacity 
D. Risk culture 



Question # 12

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit when senior management periodically reviews and updates risk appetite and tolerance levels? 

A. It ensures compliance with the risk management framework. 
B. It ensures an effective risk aggregation process. 
C. It ensures decisions are risk-informed. 
D. It ensures a consistent approach for risk assessments. 



Question # 13

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a data protection management plan? 

A. Perform a cost-benefit analysis. 
B. Identify critical data. 
C. Establish a data inventory.
 D. Conduct a risk analysis. 



Question # 14

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan? 

A. Project execution phase 
B. Project initiation phase 
C. Project closing phase 
D. Project planning phase 



Question # 15

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response? 

A. Align business objectives to the risk profile.
 B. Assess risk against business objectives 
C. Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy. 
D. Explain risk details to management. 



Question # 16

During a review of an organization’s risk management practices, an auditor notices that the identified risk scenarios do not reflect recent changes in the business environment, such as new technologies and emerging threats. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. Some risk remediation activities from the last assessment are still in progress.
B. The risk scenarios have never been updated.
C. The risk scenario development process was led by an external consultant.
D. The number of risk scenarios is very high.



Question # 17

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change? 

A. Risk impact 
B. Risk trend 
C. Risk appetite 
D. Risk likelihood 



Question # 18

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios? 

A. Assign ownership of the risk response plan 
B. Provide awareness in early detection of risk. 
C. Perform periodic audits on identified risk. 
D. areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization. 



Question # 19

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management: 

A. for compliance with laws and regulations 
B. as a basis for cost-benefit analysis. 
C. as input for decision-making 
D. to measure organizational success. 



Question # 20

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy? 

A. Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment 
B. Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks 
C. Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment 
D. Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks 



Question # 21

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of involving business owners in risk scenario development? 

A. Business owners have the ability to effectively manage risk. 
B. Business owners have authority to approve control implementation. 
C. Business owners understand the residual risk of competitors. 
D. Business owners are able to assess the impact. 



Question # 22

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

A. Feedback from end users 
B. Results of a benchmark analysis
 C. Recommendations from internal audit 
D. Prioritization from business owners 



Question # 23

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the: 

A. establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making. 
B. compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements. 
C. improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.
 D. alignment of business goals with IT objectives. 



Question # 24

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis? 

A. Risk appetite 
B. Threat type 
C. Risk tolerance 
D. Residual risk 



Question # 25

During a data loss incident, which role in the RACI chart would be aligned to the risk practitioner? 

A. Responsible 
B. Accountable 
C. Informed 
D. Consulted 



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