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Isaca CISA Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
A new system is being developed by a vendor for a consumer service organization. The
vendor will provide its proprietary software once system development is completed Which
of the following is the MOST important requirement to include In the vendor contract to
ensure continuity?
A. Continuous 24/7 support must be available. B. The vendor must have a documented disaster recovery plan (DRP) in place. C. Source code for the software must be placed in escrow. D. The vendor must train the organization's staff to manage the new software
Answer: C Explanation:
Source code for the software must be placed in escrow is the most important requirement
to include in the vendor contract to ensure continuity. Source code is the original code of a
software program that can be modified or enhanced by programmers. Placing source code
in escrow means depositing it with a trusted third party who can release it to the customer
under certain conditions, such as vendor bankruptcy, breach of contract, or failure to
provide support. This can help to ensure continuity of the software product and its
maintenance in case of vendor unavailability or dispute. The other options are less
important requirements to include in the vendor contract, as they may involve support
availability, disaster recovery plan, or staff training. References:
After the merger of two organizations, which of the following is the MOST important task for
an IS auditor to perform?
A. Verifying that access privileges have been reviewed B. investigating access rights for expiration dates C. Updating the continuity plan for critical resources D. Updating the security policy
Answer: A Explanation:
The most important task for an IS auditor to perform after the merger of two organizations
is to verify that access privileges have been reviewed. Access privileges are the
permissions granted to users, groups, or roles to access, modify, or manage IT resources,
such as systems, applications, data, or networks. After a merger, the IS auditor should
ensure that the access privileges of both organizations are aligned with the new business
objectives, policies, and processes, and that there are no conflicts, overlaps, or gaps in the
access rights. The IS auditor should also verify that the access privileges are based on the
principle of least privilege, which means that users are granted only the minimum level of
access required to perform their tasks. The other options are not as important as verifying that access privileges have been
reviewed: Investigating access rights for expiration dates is a useful task, but it is not the
most important one. Expiration dates are the dates when access rights are
automatically revoked or suspended after a certain period of time or after a specific
event. The IS auditor should check that the expiration dates are set appropriately
and enforced consistently, but this is not as critical as reviewing the access
privileges themselves. Updating the continuity plan for critical resources is a necessary task, but it is not
the most urgent one. A continuity plan is a document that outlines the procedures
and actions to be taken in the event of a disruption or disaster that affects the
availability of IT resources. The IS auditor should update the continuity plan to
reflect the changes and dependencies introduced by the merger, but this can be
done after verifying that the access privileges are secure and compliant. Updating the security policy is an essential task, but it is not the most immediate
one. A security policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for
securing IT resources and protecting information assets. The IS auditor should
update the security policy to incorporate the best practices and standards of both
organizations, and to address any new risks or threats posed by the merger, but
this can be done after verifying that the access privileges are aligned with the
policy.
Question # 3
Which of the following should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the public key
infrastructure (PKI) for enterprise email?
A. The certificate revocation list has not been updated. B. The PKI policy has not been updated within the last year. C. The private key certificate has not been updated. D. The certificate practice statement has not been published
Answer: A
Question # 4
In which phase of penetration testing would host detection and domain name system
(DNS) interrogation be performed?
A. Discovery B. Attacks C. Planning D. Reporting
Answer: A Explanation:
Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a system or network by
simulating an attack from a malicious source. Penetration testing typically consists of four
phases: planning, discovery, attacks, and reporting. In the discovery phase, penetration
testers gather information about the target system or network, such as host detection,
domain name system (DNS) interrogation, port scanning, service identification, operating
system fingerprinting, vulnerability scanning, etc. This information can help to identify
potential entry points, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities that can be exploited in the
subsequent attack phase. Host detection and DNS interrogation are techniques that can be
used in the discovery phase to determine the active hosts and their IP addresses and
hostnames on the target network. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition],
page 368.
Question # 5
An IS auditor is conducting a review of a data center. Which of the following observations
could indicate an access control Issue?
A. Security cameras deployed outside main entrance B. Antistatic mats deployed at the computer room entrance C. Muddy footprints directly inside the emergency exit D. Fencing around facility is two meters high
Answer: C Explanation:
An IS auditor is conducting a review of a data center. An observation that could indicate an
access control issue is muddy footprints directly inside the emergency exit. Access control
is a process that ensures that only authorized entities or individuals can access or use an
information system or resource, and prevents unauthorized access or use. Access control
can be implemented using various methods or mechanisms, such as physical, logical,
administrative, etc. Muddy footprints directly inside the emergency exit could indicate an
access control issue, as they could suggest that someone has entered the data center
through the emergency exit without proper authorization or authentication, and potentially
compromised the security or integrity of the data center. Security cameras deployed
outside main entrance is not an observation that could indicate an access control issue, but
rather a control that could enhance access control, as security cameras are devices that
capture and record video footage of the surroundings, and can help monitor and deter
unauthorized access or activity. Antistatic mats deployed at the computer room entrance is
not an observation that could indicate an access control issue, but rather a control that
could prevent static electricity damage, as antistatic mats are devices that dissipate or
reduce static charges from people or objects, and can help protect electronic equipment
from electrostatic discharge (ESD). Fencing around facility is two meters high is not an
observation that could indicate an access control issue, but rather a control that could
improve physical security, as fencing is a barrier that encloses or surrounds an area, and
can help prevent unauthorized entry or intrusion.
Question # 6
A project team has decided to switch to an agile approach to develop a replacement for an
existing business application. Which of the following should an IS auditor do FIRST to
ensure the effectiveness of the protect audit?
A. Compare the agile process with previous methodology. B. Identify and assess existing agile process control C. Understand the specific agile methodology that will be followed. D. Interview business process owners to compile a list of business requirements
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding the specific agile methodology that will be followed is the first step that an IS
auditor should do to ensure the effectiveness of the project audit. An IS auditor should
familiarize themselves with the agile approach, principles, practices, and tools that will be
used by the project team, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the project
stakeholders. This will help the IS auditor to identify and assess the relevant risks and
controls for the project audit. The other options are not the first steps that an IS auditor
should do, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on the specific agile
methodology. References:
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 211
Question # 7
Which of the following would MOST effectively ensure the integrity of data transmitted over
a network?
A. Message encryption B. Certificate authority (CA) C. Steganography D. Message digest
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most effective way to ensure the integrity of data transmitted over a network is to use a
message digest. A message digest is a cryptographic function that generates a unique and
fixed-length value (also known as a hash or checksum) from any input data. The message
digest can be used to verify that the data has not been altered or corrupted during
transmission by comparing it with the message digest generated at the destination.
Message encryption is a method of protecting the confidentiality of data transmitted over a
network by transforming it into an unreadable format using a secret key. Message
encryption does not ensure the integrity of data, as it does not prevent or detect
unauthorized modifications. Certificate authority (CA) is an entity that issues and manages
digital certificates that bind public keys to identities. CA does not ensure the integrity of
data, as it does not prevent or detect unauthorized modifications. Steganography is a
technique of hiding data within other data, such as images or audio files. Steganography
does not ensure the integrity of data, as it does not prevent or detect unauthorized
modifications. References:
In data warehouse (DW) management, what is the BEST way to prevent data quality
issues caused by changes from a source system?
A. Configure data quality alerts to check variances between the data warehouse and the source system B. Require approval for changes in the extract/Transfer/load (ETL) process between the two systems C. Include the data warehouse in the impact analysis (or any changes m the source system D. Restrict access to changes in the extract/transfer/load (ETL) process between the two systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
Including the data warehouse in the impact analysis for any changes in the source system
is the best way to prevent data quality issues caused by changes from a source system. A
data warehouse is a centralized repository of integrated data from one or more source
systems. An impact analysis is a technique of assessing the potential effects and
consequences of a change on the existing system or environment. Including the data
warehouse in the impact analysis can help to identify and mitigate any data quality issues
that may arise from changes in the source system, such as data inconsistency,
incompleteness, or inaccuracy. The other options are less effective ways to prevent data
quality issues, as they may involve data quality alerts, approval for changes, or access
restrictions. References:
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 226
Question # 9
An organization was recently notified by its regulatory body of significant discrepancies in
its reporting data. A preliminary investigation revealed that the discrepancies were caused
by problems with the organization's data quality Management has directed the data quality
team to enhance their program. The audit committee has asked internal audit to be
advisors to the process. To ensure that management concerns are addressed, which data
set should internal audit recommend be reviewed FIRST?
A. Data with customer personal information B. Data reported to the regulatory body C. Data supporting financial statements D. Data impacting business objectives
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure that management concerns are addressed, internal audit should recommend
that the data quality team review the data reported to the regulatory body first. This is
because this data set is the most relevant and critical to the issue that triggered the
enhancement of the data quality program. The data reported to the regulatory body should
be accurate, complete, consistent, and timely, as any discrepancies could result in fines,
penalties, or reputational damage for the organization.Data with customer personal
information is important for data quality, but it is not directly related to the regulatory
reporting issue. Data supporting financial statements is important for data quality, but it
may not be the same as the data reported to the regulatory body. Data impacting business
objectives is important for data quality, but it may not be as urgent or sensitive as the data
reported to the regulatory body. References:
The IS auditor has recommended that management test a new system before using it in
production mode. The BEST approach for management in developing a test plan is to use
processing parameters that are:
A. randomly selected by a test generator. B. provided by the vendor of the application. C. randomly selected by the user. D. simulated by production entities and customers.
Answer: D Explanation:
The best approach for management in developing a test plan is to use processing
parameters that are simulated by production entities and customers. This is because using
realistic data and scenarios can help to evaluate the functionality, performance, reliability,
and security of the new system under actual operating conditions and expectations. Using
processing parameters that are randomly selected by a test generator, provided by the
vendor of the application, or randomly selected by the user may not be sufficient or
representative of the production environment and may not reveal all the potential issues or
defects of the new system. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page
266.
Question # 11
Which of the following documents should specify roles and responsibilities within an IT
audit organization?
A. Organizational chart B. Audit charier C. Engagement letter D. Annual audit plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
The audit charter is a document that defines the purpose, scope, authority, and
responsibility of an IT audit organization. The audit charter should specify roles and
responsibilities within an IT audit organization, such as who is accountable for approving
the audit plan, who is responsible for conducting the audits, who is authorized to access
the audit evidence, and who is accountable for reporting the audit results. The
organizational chart, the engagement letter, and the annual audit plan are also important
documents for an IT audit organization, but they do not specify roles and responsibilities as
clearly and comprehensively as the audit charter.
Question # 12
Which of the following would BEST help lo support an auditor’s conclusion about the
effectiveness of an implemented data classification program?
A. Purchase of information management tools B. Business use cases and scenarios C. Access rights provisioned according to scheme D. Detailed data classification scheme
Answer: C
Explanation:
Access rights provisioned according to scheme would best help to support an auditor’s
conclusion about the effectiveness of an implemented data classification program. This
would indicate that the data classification program has been properly implemented and
enforced, and that the data is protected according to its sensitivity and value. The other
options are not sufficient to demonstrate the effectiveness of a data classification program,
as they do not show how the data is actually accessed and used by authorized
users. References:
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 2042
Question # 13
To enable the alignment of IT staff development plans with IT strategy, which of the
following should be done FIRST?
A. Review IT staff job descriptions for alignment B. Develop quarterly training for each IT staff member. C. Identify required IT skill sets that support key business processes D. Include strategic objectives m IT staff performance objectives
Answer: C
Explanation:
Identifying required IT skill sets that support key business processes is the first step to
enable the alignment of IT staff development plans with IT strategy. An IT strategy is a plan
that defines how IT will support the organization’s goals and objectives. Identifying required
IT skill sets means determining the knowledge, abilities, and competencies that IT staff
need to perform their roles and responsibilities effectively and efficiently. This can help to
align IT staff development plans with IT strategy, as well as to identify and address any skill
gaps or needs within the IT workforce. The other options are not the first steps to enable
alignment, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on the required IT skill
sets. References:
CISA Review Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID 229
Question # 14
An IS auditor is reviewing security controls related to collaboration tools for a business unit
responsible for intellectual property and patents. Which of the following observations
should be of MOST concern to the auditor?
A. Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property and patents B. Logging and monitoring for content filtering is not enabled. C. Employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration tools. D. The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an Internet browser
Answer: B
Explanation:
The observation that should be of most concern to the auditor when reviewing security
controls related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual
property and patents is that employees can share files with users outside the company
through collaboration tools. Collaboration tools are software or hardware devices that
enable users to communicate, cooperate, and coordinate with each other on a common
task or project. Collaboration tools can facilitate information sharing and knowledge
exchange among users, but they can also pose security risks if not properly controlled or
managed. Employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration
tools, as this can compromise the security and confidentiality of intellectual property and
patents, which are valuable and sensitive assets of the organization. Employees may share
files with unauthorized or untrusted users who may misuse or disclose the intellectual
property and patents, either intentionally or unintentionally. This can cause harm or
damage to the organization, such as loss of competitive advantage, reputation, revenue, or
legal rights. Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property
and patents is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to
collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but
it is not the most concerning one. Training is anactivity that educates and instructs users on
how to use collaboration tools effectively and securely, such as how to access, share,
store, and protect information using collaboration tools. Training was not provided to the
department that handles intellectual property and patents, as this can affect the awareness
and competence of users on collaboration tools, and increase the likelihood of errors or
mistakes that may compromise the security or quality of information. However, this
observation may not be directly related to collaboration tools, as it may apply to any
information system or resource used by the department. Logging and monitoring for
content filtering is not enabled is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue
related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and
patents, but it is not the most concerning one. Logging and monitoring are processes that
record and analyze the events or activities that occur on an information system or network,
such as user actions, system operations, data changes, errors, alerts, etc. Content filtering
is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of information based on
predefined criteria or rules, such as keywords, categories, sources, etc. Logging and
monitoring for content filtering is not enabled, as this can affect the auditability,
accountability, and visibility of collaboration tools, and prevent detection or investigation of
security incidents or violations related to information sharing using collaboration tools.
However, this observation may not be specific to collaboration tools, as it may affect any
information system or network that uses content filtering. The collaboration tool is hosted
and can only be accessed via an Internet browser is a possible observation that could
indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for
intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. A hosted
collaboration tool is a type of cloud-based service that provides collaboration functionality
over the Internet without requiring installation or maintenance on local devices. An Internet
browser is a software application that enables users to access and interact with web-based
content or services. The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an
Internet browser, as this can affect the availability and reliability of collaboration tools, and
introduce security or privacy risks for information sharing using collaboration tools.
However, this observation may not be unique to collaboration tools, as it may apply to any
cloud-based service that uses an Internet browser.
Question # 15
Which of the following is the BEST source of information tor an IS auditor to use when
determining whether an organization's information security policy is adequate?
A. Information security program plans B. Penetration test results C. Risk assessment results D. Industry benchmarks
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best source of information for an IS auditor to use when determining whether an
organization’s information security policy is adequate is the risk assessment results. The
risk assessment results provide the auditor with an overview of the organization’s risk
profile, including the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that affect the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. The auditor can use the
risk assessment results to compare the organization’s information security policy with the
risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk treatment strategies of the organization. The auditor
can also use the risk assessment results to evaluate if the information security policy is
aligned with the organization’s objectives, requirements, and regulations.
Some of the web sources that support this answer are:
Performance Measurement Guide for Information Security
ISO 27001 Annex A.5 - Information Security Policies
[CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor – Question0551]
Question # 16
Upon completion of audit work, an IS auditor should:
A. provide a report to senior management prior to discussion with the auditee. B. distribute a summary of general findings to the members of the auditing team C. provide a report to the auditee stating the initial findings. D. review the working papers with the auditee.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Upon completion of audit work, an IS auditor should distribute a summary of general
findings to the members of the auditing team. This is to ensure that the audit team
members are aware of the audit results, have an opportunity to provide feedback, and can
agree on the audit conclusions and recommendations. Providing a report to senior
management prior to discussion with the auditee, providing a report to the auditee stating
the initial findings, and reviewing the working papers with the auditee are not appropriate
actions for an IS auditor to take upon completion of audit work, as they may compromise
the audit independence, objectivity, and quality. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual
27th Edition, page 221
Question # 17
During an IT governance audit, an IS auditor notes that IT policies and procedures are not
regularly reviewed and updated. The GREATEST concern to the IS auditor is that policies
and procedures might not:
A. reflect current practices. B. include new systems and corresponding process changes. C. incorporate changes to relevant laws. D. be subject to adequate quality assurance (QA).
Answer: A
Explanation:
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are
not regularly reviewed and updated is that policies and procedures might not reflect current
practices. Policies are documents that define the goals, objectives, and guidelines for an
organization’s information systems and resources. Procedures are documents that
describe the steps, tasks, or activities for implementing or executing policies. Policies and
procedures should be regularly reviewed and updated to ensure that they are relevant,
accurate, consistent, and effective for the organization’s information systems and
resources. Policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated might not
reflect current practices, as they might be outdated, obsolete, or incompatible with the
current state or needs of the organization’s information systems and resources. This can
cause confusion, inconsistency, inefficiency, or noncompliance among users or
stakeholders who rely on policies and procedures for guidance or direction. Policies and
procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes is a
possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not
regularly reviewed and updated, but it is not the greatest one. Policies and procedures
might not include new systems and corresponding process changes, as they might be
unaware of or unresponsive to the introduction or modification of information systems or
resources within the organization. This can cause gaps, overlaps, or conflicts among
policies and procedures that affect different information systems or resources.
Question # 18
What is the Most critical finding when reviewing an organization’s information security
management?
A. No dedicated security officer B. No official charier for the information security management system C. No periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities D. No employee awareness training and education program
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most critical finding when reviewing an organization’s information security
management is no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. Periodic
assessments are essential for ensuring that the organization’s information security policies,
procedures, standards, and controls are aligned with the current and emerging risks and
threats that may affect its information assets. Without periodic assessments, the
organization may not be aware of its actual security posture, gaps, or weaknesses, and
may not be able to take appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent potential security
incidents. No dedicated security officer, no official charter for the information security
management system, and no employee awareness training and education program are
also findings that may indicate some deficiencies in the organization’s information security
management, but they are not as critical as no periodic assessments to identify threats and
vulnerabilities. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 343.
Question # 19
An organization that has suffered a cyber-attack is performing a forensic analysis of the
affected users' computers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern for the
IS auditor reviewing this process?
A. An imaging process was used to obtain a copy of the data from each computer. B. The legal department has not been engaged. C. The chain of custody has not been documented. D. Audit was only involved during extraction of the Information
Answer: C
Explanation:
The chain of custody has not been documented is a finding that should be of greatest
concern for an IS auditor reviewing a forensic analysis process of an organization that has
suffered a cyber attack. The chain of custody is a record of who handled, accessed, or
modified the evidence during a forensic investigation. Documenting the chain of custody is
essential to preserve the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in a court
of law. The other options are less concerning findings that may not affect the validity or
reliability of the forensic analysis process. References:
CISA Review Questions, Answers &Explanations Database, Question ID 220
Question # 20
The due date of an audit project is approaching, and the audit manager has determined
that only 60% of the audit has been completed. Which of the following should the audit
manager do FIRST?
A. Determine where delays have occurred B. Assign additional resources to supplement the audit C. Escalate to the audit committee D. Extend the audit deadline
Answer: A
Explanation:
The first thing that the audit manager should do when faced with a situation where only
60% of the audit has been completed and the due date is approaching is to determine
where delays have occurred. This can help the audit manager to identify and analyze the
root causes of the delays, such as unexpected issues, scope changes, resource
constraints, communication problems, etc., and evaluate their impact on the audit
objectives, scope, quality, and timeline. Based on this analysis, the audit manager can then
decide on the best course of action to address the delays and complete the audit
successfully. Assigning additional resources to supplement the audit is a possible option
forresolving delays in an audit project, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager
should do, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and
suitability of the additional resources. Escalating to the audit committee is a possible option
for communicating delays in an audit project and seeking guidance or support from senior
management, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be
necessary or appropriate depending on the severity and urgency of the delays. Extending
the audit deadline is a possible option for accommodating delays in an audit project and
ensuring sufficient time for completing the audit tasks and activities, but it is not the first
thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be possible or desirable depending
on the contractual obligations, stakeholder expectations, and regulatory requirements.
Question # 21
An organization with many desktop PCs is considering moving to a thin client architecture.
Which of the following is the MAJOR advantage?
A. The security of the desktop PC is enhanced. B. Administrative security can be provided for the client. C. Desktop application software will never have to be upgraded. D. System administration can be better managed
Answer: C
Explanation:
The major advantage of moving from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture is that
desktop application software will never have to be upgraded. A thin client architecture is a
type of client-server architecture that uses lightweight or minimal devices (thin clients) as
clients that connect to a central server that provides most of the processing and storage
functions. A thin client architecture can offer several benefits over a traditional desktop PC
architecture, such as lower cost, higher security, easier maintenance, etc. One of these
benefits is that desktop application software will never have to be upgraded on thin clients,
as all the applications are installed and updated on the server, and accessed by thin clients
through a network connection. This can save time and money for installing and upgrading
software on individual devices, and ensure consistency and compatibility among different
devices. The security of the desktop PC is enhanced is a possible advantage of moving
from many desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client
architecture can enhance the security of desktop PCs by reducing the exposure
orvulnerability of data and applications on individual devices, and centralizing the security
management and control on the server. However, this advantage may depend on other
factors such as network security, server security, user authentication, etc. Administrative
security can be provided for the client is a possible advantage of moving from many
desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client
architecture can provide administrative security for clients by allowing administrators to
configure and manage client devices remotely from the server, and enforce policies and
restrictions on client access or usage. However, this advantage may depend on other
factors such as network reliability, server availability, user compliance, etc. System
administration can be better managed is a possible advantage of moving from many
desktop PCs to a thin client architecture, but it is not the major one. A thin client
architecture can improve system administration by simplifying and streamlining the tasks
and activities involved in maintaining and supporting client devices, such as backup,
recovery, troubleshooting, etc., and consolidating them on the server. However, this
advantage may depend on other factors such as network bandwidth, server capacity, user
satisfaction
Question # 22
An information systems security officer's PRIMARY responsibility for business process
applications is to:
A. authorize secured emergency access B. approve the organization's security policy C. ensure access rules agree with policies D. create role-based rules for each business process
Answer: C Explanation:
Ensuring access rules agree with policies is an information systems security officer’s
primary responsibility for business process applications. An information systems security
officer should verifythat the access controls implemented for the business process
applications are consistent with the organization’s security policy and objectives. The other
options are not the primary responsibility of an information systems security officer, but
rather the tasks of an application owner, a senior management, or a business
analyst. References:
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 208
Question # 23
Capacity management enables organizations to:
A. forecast technology trends B. establish the capacity of network communication links C. identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded D. determine business transaction volumes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Capacity management is a process that ensures that the IT resources of an organization
are sufficient to meet the current and future demands of the business. Capacity
management enables organizations to identify the extent to which components need to be
upgraded, by monitoring and analyzing the performance, utilization, and availability of the
IT components, such as servers, networks, storage, applications, etc., and identifying any
bottlenecks, gaps, or risks that may affect the service level agreements (SLAs) or quality of
service (QoS). Capacity management also helps organizations to plan and optimize the
use of IT resources, by forecasting the future demand and growth of the business, and
aligning the IT capacity with the business needs and objectives. Forecasting technology
trends is a possible outcome of capacity management, but it is not its main purpose.
Establishing the capacity of network communication links is a part of capacity
management, but it is not its main goal. Determining business transaction volumes is an
input for capacity management, but it is not its main objective.
Question # 24
An organization plans to receive an automated data feed into its enterprise data warehouse
from a third-party service provider. Which of the following would be the BEST way to
prevent accepting bad data?
A. Obtain error codes indicating failed data feeds. B. Purchase data cleansing tools from a reputable vendor. C. Appoint data quality champions across the organization. D. Implement business rules to reject invalid data.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best way to prevent accepting bad data from a third-party service provider is to
implement business rules to reject invalid data. Business rules are logical statements that
define the data quality requirements and standards for the organization. By implementing
business rules, the organization can ensure that only data that meets the predefined
criteria is accepted into the enterprise data warehouse. Obtaining error codes indicating
failed data feeds, purchasing data cleansing tools from a reputable vendor, and appointing
data quality champions across the organization are useful measures to improve data
quality, but they do not prevent accepting bad data in the first place. References: ISACA
Journal Article: Data Quality Management
Question # 25
Which of the following is the MOST important determining factor when establishing
appropriate timeframes for follow-up activities related to audit findings?
A. Availability of IS audit resources B. Remediation dates included in management responses C. Peak activity periods for the business D. Complexity of business processes identified in the audit
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important determining factor when establishing appropriate timeframes for follow
up activities related to audit findings is the remediation dates included in management
responses. The IS auditor should ensure that the follow-up activities are aligned with the
agreed-upon action plans and deadlines that management has committed to in response to
the audit findings. The follow-up activities should verify that management has implemented
the corrective actions effectively and in a timely manner, and that the audit findings have
been resolved or mitigated. The other options are less important factors for establishing timeframes for follow-up
activities:
Availability of IS audit resources. This is a practical factor that may affect the
scheduling and execution of follow-up activities, but it should not override the
priority and urgency of verifying management’s corrective actions. Peak activity periods for the business. This is a factor that may affect the
availability and cooperation of auditees during follow-up activities, but it should not
delay or postpone the verification of management’s corrective actions beyond
reasonable limits. Complexity of business processes identified in the audit. This is a factor that may
affect the scope and depth of follow-up activities, but it should not affect the
timeframe for verifying management’s corrective actions.
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