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GIAC GSEC Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
Which type of risk assessment results are typically categorized as low, medium, or highrisk events?
A. Technical B. Qualitative C. Management D. Quantitative
Answer: B
Question # 2
Which of the following is a required component for successful 802.lx networkauthentication?
A. Supplicant B. 3rd-party Certificate Authority C. Ticket Granting Server (TGS) D. IPSec
Answer: A
Question # 3
Which of the following statements about Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) are true? Eachcorrect answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It provides communication privacy, authentication, and message integrity. B. It provides mail transfer service. C. It uses a combination of public key and symmetric encryption for security of data. D. It provides connectivity between Web browser and Web server.
Answer: A,C
Question # 4
A new data center is being built where customer credit information will be processed andstored. Which of the following actions will help maintain the confidentiality of the data?
A. Environmental sensors in the server room B. Access control system for physical building C. Automated fire detection and control systems D. Frequent off-site backup of critical databases
Answer: B
Question # 5
IPS devices that are classified as "In-line NIDS" devices use a combination of anomalyanalysis, signature-based rules, and what else to identify malicious events on the network?
A. Firewall compatibility rules B. Application analysis C. ICMP and UDP active scanning D. MAC address filtering
Answer: B
Question # 6
Which of the following should be implemented to protect an organization from spam?
A. Auditing B. System hardening C. E-mail filtering D. Packet filtering
Answer: C
Question # 7
Which of the following is NOT a recommended best practice for securing Terminal Servicesand Remote Desktop?
A. Require TLS authentication and data encryption whenever possible. B. Make sure to allow all TCP 3389 traffic through the external firewall. C. Group Policy should be used to lock down the virtual desktops of thin-client users. D. Consider using IPSec or a VPN in addition to the RDP encryption if you are concernedabout future RDP vulnerabilities.
Answer: B
Question # 8
What protocol is a WAN technology?
A. 802.11 B. 802.3 C. Ethernet D. Frame Relay
Answer: D
Question # 9
Which of the following are examples of Issue-Specific policies all organizations shouldaddress?
A. Perimeter filtering guides, break times for employees, desktop neatness and backup procedures. B. Rogue wireless access points, auditing, break time for employees and organizational structure. C. Audit logs, physical access, mission statements and network protocols used. D. Backup requirements, employee monitoring, physical access and acceptable use.
Answer: D
Question # 10
Which choice best describes the line below?alert tcp any any -> 192.168.1.0/24 80 (content: /cgi-bin/test.cgi"; msg: "Attempted CGI-BIN Access!!";)
A. Tcpdump filter B. IP tables rule C. Wire shark filter D. Snort rule
Answer: D
Question # 11
What does the "x" character in the second field of the user account record of the/etc/passwd file indicate?
A. The user account is using a shadow password. B. The user account is shared by more than one user. C. The user account is disabled. D. The user account does not exist.
Answer: A
Question # 12
When considering ingress filtering, why should all inbound packets be dropped if theycontain a source address from within the protected network address space?
A. The packets are probably corrupted. B. The packets may have been accidentally routed onto the Internet. C. The packets may be deliberately spoofed by an attacker. D. The packets are a sign of excess fragmentation. E. A and B F. B and C G. B and D H. A and D
Answer: B
Question # 13
Which of the following statements about Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) aretrue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It uses TCP port 443 as the default port. B. It is a protocol used in the Universal Resource Locater (URL) address line to connect toa secure site. C. It is a protocol used to provide security for a database server in an internal network. D. It uses TCP port 80 as the default port.
Answer: A,B
Question # 14
During which of the following steps is the public/private key-pair generated for Public KeyInfrastructure (PKI)?
A. Key Recovery B. Initialization C. Registration D. Certification
Answer: B
Question # 15
Which of the following applications cannot proactively detect anomalies related to acomputer?
A. Firewall installed on the computer B. NIDS C. HIDS D. Anti-virus scanner
Answer: B
Question # 16
Which of the following quantifies the effects of a potential disaster over a period of time?
A. Risk Assessment B. Business Impact Analysis C. Disaster Recovery Planning D. Lessons Learned
Answer: B
Question # 17
What is the key difference between Electronic Codebook mode and other block ciphermodes like Cipher Block Chaining, Cipher-Feedback and Output-Feedback?
A. Plaintext patterns are concealed by XO Ring with previous cipher text block but input tothe block cipher is not randomized. B. Plaintext patterns are concealed and input to the block cipher is randomized by XO Ringwith previous cipher text block. C. Plaintext patterns encrypted with the same key will always generate the same Cipher text pattern D. Plaintext patterns are not concealed but input to the block cipher is randomized by XORing with previous cipher text block.
Answer: C
Question # 18
At what point in the Incident Handling process should an organization determine itsapproach to notifying law enforcement?
A. When performing analysis B. When preparing policy C. When recovering from the incident D. When reacting to an incident
Answer: D
Question # 19
Which of the following authentication methods are used by Wired Equivalent Privacy(WEP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Anonymous authentication B. Mutual authentication C. Open system authentication D. Shared key authentication
Answer: C,D
Question # 20
Which of the following BEST describes the two job functions of Microsoft Baseline SecurityAnalyzer (MBSA)?
A. Vulnerability scanner and auditing tool B. Auditing tool and alerting system C. Configuration management and alerting system D. Security patching and vulnerability scanner
Answer: D
Question # 21
You ask your system administrator to verify user compliance with the corporate policies onpassword strength, namely that all passwords will have at least one numeral, at least oneletter, at least one special character and be 15 characters long. He comes to you with a setof compliance tests for use with an offline password cracker. They are designed to examinethe following parameters of the password:* they contain only numerals* they contain only letters* they contain only special characters* they contain only letters and numerals" they contain only letters and special characters* they contain only numerals and special charactersOf the following, what is the benefit to using this set of tests?
A. They are focused on cracking passwords that use characters prohibited by thepassword policy B. They find non-compliant passwords without cracking compliant passwords. C. They are focused on cracking passwords that meet minimum complexity requirements D. They crack compliant and non-compliant passwords to determine whether the currentpolicy is strong enough
Answer: B
Question # 22
Which of the following is referred to as Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)?
A. Electrical line noise B. Spike C. Transient D. Brownout
Answer: A
Question # 23
Which of the following elements is the most important requirement to ensuring the successof a business continuity plan?
A. Disaster Recover Plans B. Anticipating all relevant threats C. Executive buy-in D. Clearly defining roles and responsibilities E. Training
Answer: C
Question # 24
Which of the following heights of fence deters only casual trespassers?
A. 8 feet B. 2 to 2.5 feet C. 6 to 7 feet D. 3 to 4 feet
Answer: D
Question # 25
When Net Stumbler is initially launched, it sends wireless frames to which of the followingaddresses?
A. Broadcast address B. Default gateway address C. Subnet address D. Network address
Answer: A
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