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What Is the 212-82 Certification Exam?
The 212-82 certification exam is a standardized assessment designed to measure a candidate's knowledge, competencies, and practical understanding within a defined professional field. It serves as the primary requirement for earning the Eccouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician, a credential that represents a recognized level of proficiency in its respective industry. Depending on the field, this may involve theoretical knowledge, applied problem-solving, regulatory understanding, or hands-on procedural competence.
The exam is typically developed and maintained by an accrediting body or professional organization that sets the standards for the Eccouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician. This ensures that anyone who earns the credential has met a consistent benchmark, regardless of where they studied or gained their experience. For many professionals, the 212-82 Certification Exam represents a formal checkpoint in their career, one that confirms readiness to take on greater responsibility within their chosen field.
Why the Eccouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician Certification Matters?
Certifications like the Eccouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician exist because industries need a reliable way to verify competence beyond a resume or a job title. Earning this credential signals to employers, clients, and colleagues that a professional has invested time in building a structured foundation of knowledge and has been evaluated against an established standard.
Beyond individual recognition, the Eccouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification often supports broader professional development. It can influence hiring decisions, contribute to internal advancement, or serve as a prerequisite for more specialized roles within the field. In many industries, certifications also help standardize expectations across organizations, making it easier for professionals to move between employers or sectors while carrying a credential that is widely understood and respected.
Who Should Take the 212-82 Exam?
The 212-82 exam is generally relevant to individuals who are either entering a field or looking to formalize skills they have already developed through experience. This can include early-career professionals seeking a credential to support their first steps into the industry, as well as experienced practitioners who want official recognition of knowledge gained on the job.
Students preparing to enter the workforce may also pursue the 212-82 exam as a way to strengthen their qualifications before graduating or applying for their first roles. In some fields, employers actively encourage or require staff to pursue this certification as part of ongoing professional development, particularly in industries where standards, safety, or compliance play a significant role in daily responsibilities.
Knowledge and Skills Evaluated in the Certified Cybersecurity Technician (CCT)
The Certified Cybersecurity Technician (CCT) is built to evaluate both foundational knowledge and the practical judgment needed to apply that knowledge in real situations. Candidates are generally expected to understand core principles and terminology relevant to their field, along with the reasoning behind established procedures, standards, or best practices.
Depending on the industry, this may include understanding regulatory requirements, following established protocols, applying analytical or technical methods, or exercising sound judgment in situations that require careful decision-making. Rather than testing isolated facts in a vacuum, the Certified Cybersecurity Technician (CCT) tends to reward candidates who can connect concepts to realistic scenarios, reflecting the kind of thinking expected in day-to-day professional practice.
212-82 Exam Preparation Resources
Preparing for the 212-82 certification exam becomes more effective when using high-quality and up-to-date study materials. MyCertsHub provides resources designed to help candidates build knowledge, practice consistently, and become familiar with the actual exam format.
Effective preparation for the 212-82 certification exam usually begins with a clear understanding of the exam's objectives and structure. Reviewing official guidelines or documentation published by the certifying body provides the most accurate picture of what will be covered and how heavily different areas are weighted.
From there, many candidates benefit from building a structured study plan that breaks preparation into manageable sections over a set period of time. A well-organized 212-82 Study Guide can help sequence this material logically, especially for those approaching a topic for the first time. Consistent review, paired with realistic practice, tends to produce better retention than concentrated last-minute studying.
Practical experience, where applicable to the field, also plays an important role in preparation. Working through 212-82 Practice Questions and a 212-82 practice test can help candidates identify gaps in their understanding and become familiar with the format and pacing of the actual exam. In fields where hands-on skill is assessed, supplementing study with real-world practice or supervised experience often makes the difference between recognizing correct information and genuinely understanding it.
Benefits of Earning the Eccouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician Certification
Successfully earning the Eccouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification offers benefits that extend well beyond passing a single exam. It provides documented proof of competence that can be referenced on a resume, professional profile, or internal performance review, offering a clear, third-party validation of skill and knowledge.
The credential can also strengthen professional credibility when working with clients, patients, stakeholders, or colleagues who may not be positioned to evaluate technical or specialized knowledge directly. Over time, this recognition often contributes to expanded career opportunities, whether through new responsibilities, higher-level roles, or eligibility for additional certifications that build on this foundational credential.
Prepare for the 212-82 Exam with MyCertsHub
Preparing for the 212-82 exam is a process that benefits from organized, consistent effort rather than rushed, last-minute review. MyCertsHub is designed to support that process by offering study resources, practice materials, and educational content that help candidates understand what the Certified Cybersecurity Technician (CCT) covers and how to approach their preparation thoughtfully.
Whether someone is just beginning to explore the Eccouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician or is in the final stages of reviewing material before their exam date, MyCertsHub aims to serve as a dependable resource throughout that journey. Every candidate's path to certification looks a little different, and the goal remains the same: to provide clear, genuinely useful information that supports real understanding of the subject matter.
Eccouncil 212-82 Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
in a security incident, the forensic investigation has isolated a suspicious file named "security_update.exe". You are asked to analyze the file in the Documents folder of the "Attacker Machine-1" to determine whether it is malicious. Analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature. (Practical Question)
A. Stuxnet B. KLEZ C. ZEUS D. Conficker
Answer: A
Explanation:
Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file in the above scenario. Malware is malicious
software that can harm or compromise the security or functionality of a system or network. Malware
can include various types, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, etc. Malware
signature is a unique pattern or characteristic that identifies a specific malware or malware family.
Malware signature can be used to detect or analyze malware by comparing it with known malware
signatures in databases or repositories. To analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware
signature, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1.
Right-click on security_update.exe file and select Scan with VirusTotal option.
Wait for VirusTotal to scan the file and display the results.
Observe the detection ratio and details.
The detection ratio is 59, which means that 59 out of 70 antivirus engines detected the file as
malicious. The details show that most antivirus engines detected the file as Stuxnet, which is a
malware signature of a worm that targets industrial control systems (ICS). Stuxnet can be used to
sabotage or damage ICS by modifying their code or behavior. Therefore, Stuxnet is the malware
signature of the suspicious file. KLEZ is a malware signature of a worm that spreads via email and
network shares. KLEZ can be used to infect or overwrite files, disable antivirus software, or display
fake messages. ZEUS is a malware signature of a trojan that targets banking and financial systems.
ZEUS can be used to steal or modify banking credentials, perform fraudulent transactions, or install
other malware. Conficker is a malware signature of a worm that exploits a vulnerability in Windows
operating systems. Conficker can be used to create a botnet, disable security services, or download
other malware
Question # 2
Alex, a certified security professional, works for both aggressor and defender teams. His team's main responsibility involves enhancing protection and boosting the security standards of the organization. Identify Alex's team in this scenario.
A. White team B. Purple learn C. Blue team D. Red team
Answer: B
Explanation:
Purple team is the team that Alex works for in this scenario. A team is a group of people that work
together to achieve a common goal or objective. A team can have different types based on its role or
function in an organization or a project. A purple team is a type of team that works for both
aggressor and defender teams. A purple team can be used to enhance protection and boost the
security standards of an organization by performing various tasks, such as testing, evaluating,
improving, or integrating the security measures implemented by the defender team or exploited by
the aggressor team. In the scenario, Alex is a certified security professional who works for both
aggressor and defender teams. His team's main responsibility involves enhancing protection and
boosting the security standards of the organization. This means that he works for a purple team. A
white team is a type of team that acts as an observer or an arbitrator between the aggressor and
defender teams. A white team can be used to monitor, evaluate, or adjudicate the performance or
outcome of the aggressor and defender teams by providing feedback, guidance, or rules. A blue
team is a type of team that acts as a defender or a protector of an organization's network or system.
A blue team can be used to prevent, detect, or respond to attacks from external or internal threats
by implementing various security measures, such as firewalls, antivirus, encryption, etc. A red team
is a type of team that acts as an attacker or an adversary of an organization's network or system. A
red team can be used to simulate realistic attacks from external or internal threats by exploiting
various vulnerabilities, weaknesses, or gaps in the organization's security posture.
Question # 3
Camden, a network specialist in an organization, monitored the behavior of the organizational network using SIFM from a control room. The SIEM detected suspicious activity and sent an alert to the camer a. Based on the severity of the incident displayed on the screen, Camden made the correct decision and immediately launched defensive actions to prevent further exploitation by attackers. Which of the following SIEM functions allowed Camden to view suspicious behavior and make correct decisions during a security incident?
A. Application log monitoring B. Log Retention C. Dashboard D. Data aggregation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Dashboard is the SIEM function that allowed Camden to view suspicious behavior and make correct
decisions during a security incident. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a system
or software that collects, analyzes, and correlates security data from various sources, such as logs,
alerts, events, etc., and provides a centralized view and management of the security posture of a
network or system. SIEM can be used to detect, prevent, or respond to security incidents or threats.
SIEM consists of various functions or components that perform different tasks or roles. Dashboard is
a SIEM function that provides a graphical user interface (GUI) that displays various security metrics,
indicators, alerts, reports, etc., in an organized and interactive manner. Dashboard can be used to
view suspicious behavior and make correct decisions during a security incident. In the scenario,
Camden monitored the behavior of the organizational network using SIEM from a control room. The
SIEM detected suspicious activity and sent an alert to Camden. Based on the severity of the incident
displayed on the screen, Camden made the correct decision and immediately launched defensive
actions to prevent further exploitation by attackers. This means that he used the dashboard function
of SIEM for this purpose. Application log monitoring is a SIEM function that collects and analyzes
application logs, which are records of events or activities that occur within an application or
software. Log retention is an SIEM function that stores and preserves logs for a certain period of time
or indefinitely for future reference or analysis. Data aggregation is an SIEM function that combines
and normalizes data from different sources into a common format or structure.
Question # 4
Elliott, a security professional, was tasked with implementing and deploying firewalls in the corporate network of an organization. After planning and deploying firewalls in the network, Elliott monitored the firewall logs to detect evolving threats And attacks; this helped in ensuring firewall security and addressing network issues beforehand. in which of the following phases of firewall implementation and deployment did Elliott monitor the firewall logs?
A. Deploying B. Managing and maintaining C. Testing D. Configuring
Answer: B
Explanation:
Managing and maintaining is the phase of firewall implementation and deployment in which Elliott
monitored the firewall logs in the above scenario. A firewall is a system or device that controls and
filters the incoming and outgoing traffic between different networks or systems based on predefined
rules or policies. A firewall can be used to protect a network or system from unauthorized access,
use, disclosure, modification, or destruction . Firewall implementation and deployment is a process
that involves planning, installing, configuring, testing, managing, and maintaining firewalls in a
network or system . Managing and maintaining is the phase of firewall implementation and
deployment that involves monitoring and reviewing the performance and effectiveness of firewalls
over time . Managing and maintaining can include tasks such as updating firewall rules or policies,
network issues , etc. In the scenario, Elliott was tasked with implementing and deploying firewalls in
the corporate network of an organization. After planning and deploying firewalls in the network,
Elliott monitored the firewall logs to detect evolving threats and attacks; this helped in ensuring
firewall security and addressing network issues beforehand. This means that he performed managing
and maintaining phase for this purpose. Deploying is the phase of firewall implementation and
deployment that involves installing and activating firewalls in the network or system according to the
plan. Testing is the phase of firewall implementation and deployment that involves verifying and
validating the functionality and security of firewalls before putting them into operation. Configuring
is the phase of firewall implementation and deployment that involves setting up and customizing
firewalls according to the requirements and specifications.
Question # 5
Elliott, a security professional, was appointed to test a newly developed application deployed over an organizational network using a Bastion host. Elliott initiated the process by configuring the nonreusable bastion host. He then tested the newly developed application to identify the presence of security flaws that were not yet known; further, he executed services that were not secure. identify the type of bastion host configured by Elliott in the above scenario.
A. External services hosts B. Victim machines C. One-box firewalls D. Non-routing dual-homed hosts
Answer: D
Explanation:
Non-routing dual-homed hosts are the type of bastion hosts configured by Elliott in the above
scenario. A bastion host is a system or device that is exposed to the public internet and acts as a
gateway or a proxy for other systems or networks behind it. A bastion host can be used to provide an
additional layer of security and protection for internal systems or networks from external threats and
attacks . A bastion host can have different types based on its configuration or functionality. A nonrouting
dual-homed host is a type of bastion host that has two network interfaces: one connected to
the public internet and one connected to the internal network. A non-routing dual-homed host does
not allow any direct communication between the two networks and only allows specific services or
applications to pass through it . A non-routing dual-homed host can be used to isolate and secure
internal systems or networks from external access . In the scenario, Elliott was appointed to test a
newly developed application deployed over an organizational network using a bastion host. Elliott
initiated the process by configuring the non-reusable bastion host. He then tested the newly
developed application to identify the presence of security flaws that were not yet known; further, he
executed services that were not secure. This means that he configured a non-routing dual-homed
host for this purpose. An external services host is a type of bastion host that provides external
services, such as web, email, FTP, etc., to the public internet while protecting internal systems or
networks from direct access . A victim machine is not a type of bastion host, but a term that
describes a system or device that has been compromised or infected by an attacker or malware . A
one-box firewall is not a type of bastion host, but a term that describes a firewall that performs both
packet filtering and application proxy functions in one device .
Question # 6
Juan, a safety officer at an organization, installed a physical lock at the entrance of each floor. All employees in the organization were allotted a smart card embedded in their ID cards, which had to be swiped to unlock doors and Access any floor. Which of the following types of physical locks did Juan install In this scenario?
A. Mechanical locks B. Digital locks C. Combination locks D. Electromagnetic locks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Digital locks are the types of physical locks that Juan installed in this scenario. A physical lock is a
device that prevents or restricts access to a physical location or environment, such as a door, a
cabinet, a drawer, etc. A physical lock can have different types based on its mechanism or
technology. A digital lock is a type of physical lock that uses electronic or digital components, such as
a keypad, a card reader, a fingerprint scanner, etc., to unlock or lock . A digital lock can be used to
provide enhanced security and convenience to users, but it can also be vulnerable to hacking or
tampering. In the scenario, Juan installed a physical lock at the entrance of each floor. All employees
in the organization were allotted a smart card embedded in their ID cards, which had to be swiped to
unlock doors and access any floor. This means that he installed digital locks for those doors. A
mechanical lock is a type of physical lock that uses mechanical components, such as a key, a bolt, a
latch, etc., to unlock or lock. A combination lock is a type of physical lock that uses a sequence of
numbers or symbols, such as a dial, a wheel, or a keypad, to unlock or lock. An electromagnetic lock
is a type of physical lock that uses an electromagnet and an armature plate to unlock or lock.
Question # 7
Calvin spotted blazing flames originating from a physical file storage location in his organization because of a Short circuit. In response to the incident, he used a fire suppression system that helped curb the incident in the initial stage and prevented it from spreading over a large are a. Which of the following firefighting systems did Calvin use in this scenario?
A. Fire detection system B. Sprinkler system C. Smoke detectors D. Fire extinguisher
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fire extinguisher is the firefighting system that Calvin used in this scenario. A firefighting system is a
system that detects and suppresses fire in a physical location or environment. A firefighting system
can consist of various components, such as sensors, alarms, sprinklers, extinguishers, etc. A
firefighting system can use various agents or substances to suppress fire, such as water, foam, gas,
powder, etc. A fire extinguisher is a portable device that contains an agent or substance that can be
sprayed or discharged onto a fire to extinguish it . A fire extinguisher can be used to curb fire in the
initial stage and prevent it from spreading over a large area . In the scenario, Calvin spotted blazing
flames originating from a physical file storage location in his organization because of a short circuit.
In response to the incident, he used a fire suppression system that helped curb the incident in the
initial stage and prevented it from spreading over a large area. This means that he used a fire
extinguisher for this purpose. A fire detection system is a system that detects the presence of fire by
sensing its characteristics, such as smoke, heat, flame, etc., and alerts the occupants or authorities
about it . A sprinkler system is a system that consists of pipes and sprinkler heads that release water
onto a fire when activated by heat or smoke. A smoke detector is a device that senses smoke and
emits an audible or visual signal to warn about fire.
Question # 8
George, a security professional at an MNC, implemented an Internet access policy that allowed employees working from a remote location to access any site, download any application, and access any computer or network without any restrictions. Identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by George in this scenario.
A. Permissive policy B. Paranoid policy C. Prudent policy D. Promiscuous policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Permissive policy is the type of Internet access policy implemented by George in this scenario. An
Internet access policy is a policy that defines the rules and guidelines for accessing the Internet from
a system or network. An Internet access policy can be based on various factors, such as security,
productivity, bandwidth, etc. An Internet access policy can have different types based on its level of
restriction or control. A permissive policy is a type of Internet access policy that allows users to access any site, download any application, and access any computer or network without any
restrictions. A permissive policy can be used to provide maximum flexibility and freedom to users,
but it can also pose significant security risks and challenges. In the scenario, George implemented an
Internet access policy that allowed employees working from a remote location to access any site,
download any application, and access any computer or network without any restrictions. This means
that he implemented a permissive policy for those employees. A paranoid policy is a type of Internet
access policy that blocks or denies all Internet access by default and only allows specific sites,
applications, or computers that are explicitly authorized. A prudent policy is a type of Internet access
policy that allows most Internet access but blocks or restricts some sites, applications, or computers
that are deemed inappropriate, malicious, or unnecessary. A promiscuous policy is not a type of
Internet access policy, but a term that describes a network mode that allows a network interface
card (NIC) to capture all packets on a network segment, regardless of their destination address.
Question # 9
Ayden works from home on his company's laptop. During working hours, he received an antivirus software update notification on his laptop. Ayden clicked on the update button; however, the system restricted the update and displayed a message stating that the update could only be performed by authorized personnel. Which of the following PCI-DSS requirements is demonstrated In this scenario?
A. PCI-DSS requirement no 53 B. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1 C. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1 D. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2
Answer: A
Explanation:
PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3 is the PCI-DSS requirement that is demonstrated in this scenario. PCI-DSS
(Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of standards that applies to entities that
store, process, or transmit payment card information, such as merchants, service providers, or
payment processors. PCI-DSS requires them to protect cardholder data from unauthorized access,
use, or disclosure. PCI-DSS consists of 12 requirements that are grouped into six categories: build and
maintain a secure network and systems, protect cardholder data, maintain a vulnerability
management program, implement strong access control measures, regularly monitor and test
networks, and maintain an information security policy. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3 is part of the
category "maintain a vulnerability management program"? and states that antivirus mechanisms
must be actively running and cannot be disabled or altered by users, unless specifically authorized by
management on a case-by-case basis for a limited time period. In the scenario, Ayden works from
home on his company's laptop. During working hours, he received an antivirus software update
notification on his laptop. Ayden clicked on the update button; however, the system restricted the
update and displayed a message stating that the update could only be performed by authorized
personnel. This means that his company's laptop has an antivirus mechanism that is actively running
and cannot be disabled or altered by users, which demonstrates PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3.
Question # 10
Giovanni, a system administrator, was tasked with configuring permissions for employees working on a new project. Hit organization used active directories (ADs) to grant/deny permissions to resources Giovanni created a folder for AD users with the required permissions and added all employees working on the new project in it. Identify the type of account created by Giovanni in this scenario.
A. Third-party account B. Croup-based account C. Shared account D. Application account
Answer: B
Explanation:
Group-based account is the type of account created by Giovanni in this scenario. An account is a set
of credentials, such as a username and a password, that allows a user to access a system or network.
An account can have different types based on its purpose or usage. A group-based account is a type
of account that allows multiple users to access a system or network with the same credentials and
permissions. A group-based account can be used to simplify the management of users and resources
by assigning them to groups based on their roles or functions. In the scenario, Giovanni was tasked
with configuring permissions for employees working on a new project. His organization used active
directories (ADs) to grant/deny permissions to resources. Giovanni created a folder for AD users with
the required permissions and added all employees working on the new project in it. This means that
he created a group-based account for those employees. A third-party account is a type of account
that allows an external entity or service to access a system or network with limited permissions or scope. A shared account is a type of account that allows multiple users to access a system or network
with the same credentials but different permissions. An application account is a type of account that
allows an application or software to access a system or network with specific permissions or
functions.
Question # 11
Stella purchased a smartwatch online using her debit card. After making payment for the product through the payment gateway, she received a transaction text message with a deducted and available balance from her bank. Identify the information security element that ensures that Stella's transaction status is immediately reflected in her bank account in this scenario.
A. Non-repudiation B. Integrity C. Availability D. Confidentiality
Answer: C
Explanation:
Availability is the information security element that ensures that Stella's transaction status is
immediately reflected in her bank account in this scenario. Information security is the practice of
protecting information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure,
modification, or destruction. Information security can be based on three fundamental principles:
confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality is the principle that ensures that information
is accessible only to authorized parties and not disclosed to unauthorized parties. Integrity is the
principle that ensures that information is accurate, complete, and consistent and not altered or
corrupted by unauthorized parties. Availability is the principle that ensures that information and
information systems are accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed. In the scenario,
Stella purchased a smartwatch online using her debit card. After making payment for the product
through the payment gateway, she received a transaction text message with a deducted and
available balance from her bank. This means that her transaction status was immediately reflected in
her bank account, which indicates that availability was ensured by her bank's information system.
Question # 12
Kevin, a professional hacker, wants to penetrate CyberTech Inc.'s network. He employed a technique, using which he encoded packets with Unicode characters. The company's IDS cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them. What is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system?
A. Desynchronization B. Obfuscating C. Session splicing D. Urgency flag
Answer: B
Explanation:
Obfuscating is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system in the above scenario.
Obfuscating is a technique that involves encoding or modifying packets or data with various methods
or characters to make them unreadable or unrecognizable by an IDS (Intrusion Detection System).
Obfuscating can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on signatures or patterns to
detect malicious activities. Obfuscating can include encoding packets with Unicode characters, which
are characters that can represent various languages and symbols. The IDS system cannot recognize
the packet, but the target web server can decode them and execute them normally.
Desynchronization is a technique that involves creating discrepancies or inconsistencies between the
state of a connection as seen by an IDS system and the state of a connection as seen by the end
hosts. Desynchronization can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on stateful
inspection to track and analyze connections. Desynchronization can include sending packets with
invalid sequence numbers, which are numbers that indicate the order of packets in a connection.
Session splicing is a technique that involves splitting or dividing packets or data into smaller
fragments or segments to make them harder to detect by an IDS system. Session splicing can be used
to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on packet size or content to detect malicious activities.
Session splicing can include sending packets with small MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) values,
which are values that indicate the maximum size of packets that can be transmitted over a network.
An urgency flag is a flag in the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) header that indicates that the
data in the packet is urgent and should be processed immediately by the receiver. An urgency flag is not a technique to evade an IDS system, but it can be used to trigger an IDS system to generate an
alert or a response.
Question # 13
Henry Is a cyber security specialist hired by BlackEye - Cyber security solutions. He was tasked with discovering the operating system (OS) of a host. He used the Unkornscan tool to discover the OS of the target system. As a result, he obtained a TTL value, which Indicates that the target system is running a Windows OS. Identify the TTL value Henry obtained, which indicates that the target OS is Windows.
A. 64 B. 128 C. 255 D. 138
Answer: B
Explanation:
128 is the TTL value that Henry obtained, which indicates that the target OS is Windows. TTL (Time
to Live) is a field in the IP (Internet Protocol) header that specifies how long a packet can remain in a
network before it is discarded or dropped. TTL is usually expressed in seconds or hops (the number
of routers or gateways that a packet passes through). TTL is used to prevent packets from looping
endlessly in a network or consuming network resources . Different operating systems have different
default TTL values for their packets. By observing the TTL value of a packet from a target system or
network, one can infer the operating system of the target . Some common TTL values and their
corresponding operating systems are:
64: Linux, Unix, Android
128: Windows
255: Cisco IOS
60: Mac OS
In the scenario, Henry used Nmap tool to discover the OS of the target system. Nmap (Network
Mapper) is a tool that can perform various network scanning and enumeration tasks, such as port
scanning, OS detection, service identification, etc . Nmap can use various techniques to detect the OS
of a target system, such as TCP/IP fingerprinting, which involves analyzing various TCP/IP
characteristics of packets from the target system, such as TTL value. In the scenario, Henry obtained a
TTL value of 128 , which indicates that the target OS is Windows.
Question # 14
Bob was recently hired by a medical company after it experienced a major cyber security breach. Many patients are complaining that their personal medical records are fully exposed on the Internet and someone can find them with a simple Google search. Bob's boss is very worried because of regulations that protect those dat a. Which of the following regulations is mostly violated?
A. HIPPA/PHl B. Pll C. PCIDSS D. ISO 2002
Answer: A
Explanation:
HIPPA/PHI is the regulation that is mostly violated in the above scenario. HIPPA (Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act) is a US federal law that sets standards for protecting the privacy
and security of health information. PHI (Protected Health Information) is any information that relates
to the health or health care of an individual and that can identify the individual, such as name,
address, medical records, etc. HIPPA/PHI requires covered entities, such as health care providers,
health plans, or health care clearinghouses, and their business associates, to safeguard PHI from
unauthorized access, use, or disclosure . In the scenario, the medical company experienced a major
cyber security breach that exposed the personal medical records of many patients on the internet,
which violates HIPPA/PHI regulations. PII (Personally Identifiable Information) is any information that
can be used to identify a specific individual, such as name, address, social security number, etc. PII is
not specific to health information and can be regulated by various laws, such as GDPR (General Data
Protection Regulation), CCPA (California Consumer Privacy Act), etc. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry
Data Security Standard) is a set of standards that applies to entities that store, process, or transmit
payment card information, such as merchants, service providers, or payment processors. PCI DSS
requires them to protect cardholder data from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. ISO 2002
(International Organization for Standardization 2002) is not a regulation, but a standard for
information security management systems that provides guidelines and best practices for
organizations to manage their information security risks.
Question # 15
You are a penetration tester working to test the user awareness of the employees of the client xyz. You harvested two employees' emails from some public sources and are creating a client-side backdoor to send it to the employees via email. Which stage of the cyber kill chain are you at?
A. Reconnaissance B. Command and control C. Weaponization D. Exploitation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Weaponization is the stage of the cyber kill chain that you are at in the above scenario. The cyber kill chain is a model that describes the phases of a cyberattack from the perspective of the attacker. The
installation, command and control, and actions on objectives. Reconnaissance is the stage of the
cyber kill chain that involves gathering information about the target, such as IP addresses, domain
names, vulnerabilities, etc. Weaponization is the stage of the cyber kill chain that involves creating a
malicious payload or tool that can exploit the target's vulnerabilities. Weaponization can include
creating a client-side backdoor to send it to the employees via email. Delivery is the stage of the
cyber kill chain that involves transmitting or delivering the weaponized payload or tool to the target's
system or network. Exploitation is the stage of the cyber kill chain that involves executing or
triggering the weaponized payload or tool on the target's system or network.
Question # 16
Johnson, an attacker, performed online research for the contact details of reputed cybersecurity firms. He found the contact number of sibertech.org and dialed the number, claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor. He warned that a specific server is about to be compromised and requested sibertech.org to follow the provided instructions. Consequently, he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical Information to Johnson's machine. What is the social engineering technique Steve employed in the above scenario?
A. Quid pro quo B. Diversion theft C. Elicitation D. Phishing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quid pro quo is the social engineering technique that Johnson employed in the above scenario. Quid
pro quo is a social engineering method that involves offering a service or a benefit in exchange for
information or access. Quid pro quo can be used to trick victims into believing that they are receiving
help or assistance from a legitimate source, while in fact they are compromising their security or
privacy. In the scenario, Johnson performed quid pro quo by claiming himself to represent a technical
support team from a vendor and offering to help sibertech.org with a server issue, while in fact he
prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used
to collect and pass critical information to Johnson's machine. If you want to learn more about social
engineering techniques, you can check out these resources:
[1] A guide to different types of social engineering attacks and how to prevent them:
Initiate an SSH Connection to a machine that has SSH enabled in the network. After connecting to the machine find the file flag.txt and choose the content hidden in the file. Credentials for SSH login are provided below: Hint: Username: sam Password: admin@l23
A. sam@bob B. bob2@sam C. bob@sam D. sam2@bob
Answer: C
Explanation:
Quid pro quo is the social engineering technique that Johnson employed in the above scenario.
Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into performing
actions or revealing information that can be used for malicious purposes. Social engineering can be
performed through various methods, such as phone calls, emails, websites, etc. Quid pro quo is a
social engineering method that involves offering a service or a benefit in exchange for information or
access. Quid pro quo can be used to trick victims into believing that they are receiving help or
assistance from a legitimate source, while in fact they are compromising their security or privacy . In
the scenario, Johnson performed quid pro quo by claiming himself to represent a technical support
team from a vendor and offering to help sibertech.org with a server issue, while in fact he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect
and pass critical information to Johnson's machine. Diversion theft is a social engineering method
that involves diverting the delivery or shipment of goods or assets to a different location or
destination. Elicitation is a social engineering method that involves extracting information from a
target by engaging them in a conversation or an interaction. Phishing is a social engineering method
that involves sending fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from a trusted source, such
as a bank, a company, or a person, and asking the recipient to click on a link, open an attachment, or
provide personal or financial information.
Question # 18
A text file containing sensitive information about the organization has been leaked and modified to bring down the reputation of the organization. As a safety measure, the organization did contain the MD5 hash of the original file. The file which has been leaked is retained for examining the integrity. A file named "Sensitiveinfo.txt" along with OriginalFileHash.txt has been stored in a folder named Hash in Documents of Attacker Machine-1. Compare the hash value of the original file with the leaked file and state whether the file has been modified or not by selecting yes or no.
A. No B. Yes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Yes is the answer to whether the file has been modified or not in the above scenario. A hash is a
fixed-length string that is generated by applying a mathematical function, called a hash function, to a
piece of data, such as a file or a message. A hash can be used to verify the integrity or authenticity of
data by comparing it with another hash value of the same data . A hash value is unique and any
change in the data will result in a different hash value . To compare the hash value of the original file
with the leaked file and state whether the file has been modified or not, one has to follow these
steps:
Navigate to Hash folder in Documents of Attacker-1 machine.
Open OriginalFileHash.txt file with a text editor.
Note down the MD5 hash value of the original file as 8f14e45fceea167a5a36dedd4bea2543
Open Command Prompt and change directory to Hash folder using cd command.
Type certutil -hashfile Sensitiveinfo.txt MD5 and press Enter key to generate MD5 hash value of
leaked file.
Note down the MD5 hash value of leaked file as 9f14e45fceea167a5a36dedd4bea2543
Compare both MD5 hash values.
The MD5 hash values are different , which means that the file has been modified.
Question # 19
An IoT device that has been placed in a hospital for safety measures, it has sent an alert command to the server. The network traffic has been captured and stored in the Documents folder of the Attacker Machine-1. Analyze the loTdeviceTraffic.pcapng file and select the appropriate command that was sent by the IoT device over the network.
A. Tempe_Low B. Low_Tempe C. Temp_High D. High_Tempe
Answer: C
Explanation:
Temp_High is the command that was sent by the IoT device over the network in the above scenario.
An IoT (Internet of Things) device is a device that can connect to the internet and communicate with
other devices or systems over a network. An IoT device can send or receive commands or data for
various purposes, such as monitoring, controlling, or automating processes. To analyze the IoT device
traffic file and determine the command that was sent by the IoT device over the network, one has to
follow these steps:
Navigate to the Documents folder of Attacker-1 machine.
Double-click on loTdeviceTraffic.pcapng file to open it with Wireshark.
Click on Analyze menu and select Display Filters option.
Enter udp.port == 5000 as filter expression and click on Apply button.
Observe the packets filtered by the expression.
Click on packet number 4 and expand User Datagram Protocol section in packet details pane.
Observe the data field under User Datagram Protocol section.
The data field under User Datagram Protocol section is 54:65:6d:70:5f:48:69:67:68 , which is
hexadecimal representation of Temp_High , which is the command that was sent by the IoT device
over the network.
Question # 20
A threat intelligence feed data file has been acquired and stored in the Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1 (File Name: Threatfeed.txt). You are a cybersecurity technician working for an ABC organization. Your organization has assigned you a task to analyze the data and submit a report on the threat landscape. Select the IP address linked with http://securityabc.s21sec.com.
A. 5.9.200.200 B. 5.9.200.150 C. 5.9.110.120 D. 5.9.188.148
An attacker with malicious intent used SYN flooding technique to disrupt the network and gain advantage over the network to bypass the Firewall. You are working with a security architect to design security standards and plan for your organization. The network traffic was captured by the SOC team and was provided to you to perform a detailed analysis. Study the Synflood.pcapng file and determine the source IP address. Note: Synflood.pcapng file is present in the Documents folder of Attacker-1 machine.
A. 20.20.10.180 B. 20.20.10.19 C. 20.20.10.60 D. 20.20.10.59
Answer: B
Explanation:
20.20.10.19 is the source IP address of the SYN flooding attack in the above scenario. SYN flooding is
a type of denial-of-service (DoS) attack that exploits the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) threeway
handshake process to disrupt the network and gain advantage over the network to bypass the
firewall. SYN flooding sends a large number of SYN packets with spoofed source IP addresses to a
target server, causing it to allocate resources and wait for the corresponding ACK packets that never
arrive. This exhausts the server's resources and prevents it from accepting legitimate requests . To
determine the source IP address of the SYN flooding attack, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to the Documents folder of Attacker-1 machine.
Double-click on Synflood.pcapng file to open it with Wireshark.
Click on Statistics menu and select Conversations option.
Click on TCP tab and sort the list by Bytes column in descending order.
Observe the IP address that has sent the most bytes to 20.20.10.26 (target server).
The IP address that has sent the most bytes to 20.20.10.26 is 20.20.10.19 , which is the source IP
address of the SYN flooding attack.
Question # 22
An FTP server has been hosted in one of the machines in the network. Using Cain and Abel the attacker was able to poison the machine and fetch the FTP credentials used by the admin. You're given a task to validate the credentials that were stolen using Cain and Abel and read the file flag.txt
A. white@hat B. red@hat C. hat@red D. blue@hat
Answer: C
Explanation:
hat@red is the FTP credential that was stolen using Cain and Abel in the above scenario. FTP (File
Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that allows transferring files between a client and a server over a
network. FTP requires a username and a password to authenticate the client and grant access to the
server . Cain and Abel is a tool that can perform various network attacks, such as ARP poisoning,
password cracking, sniffing, etc. Cain and Abel can poison the machine and fetch the FTP credentials
used by the admin by intercepting and analyzing the network traffic . To validate the credentials that were stolen using Cain and Abel and read the file flag.txt, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to the Documents folder of Attacker-1 machine.
Double-click on Cain.exe file to launch Cain and Abel tool.
Click on Sniffer tab.
Click on Start/Stop Sniffer icon.
Click on Configure icon.
Select the network adapter and click on OK button.
Click on + icon to add hosts to scan.
Select All hosts in my subnet option and click on OK button.
Wait for the hosts to appear in the list.
Right-click on 20.20.10.26 (FTP server) and select Resolve Host Name option.
Note down the host name as ftpserver.movieabc.com
Click on Passwords tab.
Click on + icon to add items to list.
Select Network Passwords option.
Select FTP option from Protocol drop-down list.
Click on OK button.
Wait for the FTP credentials to appear in the list.
Note down the username as hat and the password as red
Press Enter key to access the FTP server using the stolen credentials.
Navigate to flag.txt file and open it.
Read the file content.
Question # 23
RAT has been setup in one of the machines connected to the network to steal the important Sensitive corporate docs located on Desktop of the server, further investigation revealed the IP address of the server 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection using thief client and determine the number of files present in the folder. Hint: Thief folder is located at: Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Thief of Attacker Machine-1.
A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
3 is the number of files present in the folder in the above scenario. A RAT (Remote Access Trojan) is a
type of malware that allows an attacker to remotely access and control a compromised system or
network. A RAT can be used to steal sensitive data, spy on user activity, execute commands, install
other malware, etc. To initiate a remote connection using thief client, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to the thief folder located at Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and
Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Thief of Attacker Machine-1.
Double-click on thief.exe file to launch thief client.
Enter 20.20.10.26 as IP address of server.
Enter 1234 as port number.
Click on Connect button.
After establishing connection with server, click on Browse button.
Navigate to Desktop folder on server.
Count number of files present in folder.
The number of files present in folder is 3, which are:
Sensitive corporate docs.docx
Sensitive corporate docs.pdf
Sensitive corporate docs.txt
Question # 24
Cassius, a security professional, works for the risk management team in an organization. The team is responsible for performing various activities involved in the risk management process. In this process, Cassius was instructed to select and implement appropriate controls on the identified risks in order to address the risks based on their severity level. Which of the following risk management phases was Cassius instructed to perform in the above scenario?
A. Risk analysis B. Risk treatment C. Risk prioritization D. Risk identification
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk treatment is the risk management phase that Cassius was instructed to perform in the above
scenario. Risk management is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating,
monitoring, and reviewing risks that can affect an organization's objectives, assets, or operations.
Risk management phases can be summarized as follows: risk identification, risk analysis, risk
prioritization, risk treatment, and risk monitoring . Risk identification is the risk management phase
that involves identifying and documenting potential sources, causes, events, and impacts of risks.
Risk analysis is the risk management phase that involves assessing and quantifying the likelihood and
consequences of risks. Risk prioritization is the risk management phase that involves ranking risks
based on their severity level and determining which risks need immediate attention or action. Risk
treatment is the risk management phase that involves selecting and implementing appropriate
controls or strategies to address risks based on their severity level . Risk treatment can include
avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting risks. Risk monitoring is the risk management phase
that involves tracking and reviewing the performance and effectiveness of risk controls or strategies
over time
Question # 25
Kasen, a cybersecurity specialist at an organization, was working with the business continuity and disaster recovery team. The team initiated various business continuity and discovery activities in the organization. In this process, Kasen established a program to restore both the disaster site and the damaged materials to the pre-disaster levels during an incident. Which of the following business continuity and disaster recovery activities did Kasen perform in the above scenario?
A. Prevention B. Resumption C. Response D. Recovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
Recovery is the business continuity and disaster recovery activity that Kasen performed in the above
scenario. Business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) is a process that involves planning,
preparing, and implementing various activities to ensure the continuity of critical business functions
and the recovery of essential resources in the event of a disaster or disruption. BCDR activities can be
categorized into four phases: prevention, response, resumption, and recovery . Prevention is the
BCDR phase that involves identifying and mitigating potential risks and threats that can cause a
disaster or disruption. Response is the BCDR phase that involves activating the BCDR plan and
executing the immediate actions to protect people, assets, and operations during a disaster or
disruption. Resumption is the BCDR phase that involves restoring the minimum level of services and
functions required to resume normal business operations after a disaster or disruption. Recovery is
the BCDR phase that involves restoring both the disaster site and the damaged materials to the predisaster
levels during an incident.
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