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CompTIA N10-009 Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
A company's network is experiencing high latency and packet loss during peak hours. Networkmonitoring tools show increased traffic on a switch. Which of the following should a networktechnician implement to reduce the network congestion and improve performance?
A.Load balancing B.Port mirroring C.Quality of Service D.Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: C
Explanation:
Quality of Service (QoS): This is a feature used in networking to prioritize certain types of traffic.
By configuring QoS, network administrators can allocate higher bandwidth to time-sensitive
applications like VoIP, video conferencing, or critical business applications during peak usage times.
This helps to reduce latency and packet loss, which are often caused by congestion.
Load Balancing (A): While load balancing is useful in distributing traffic across multiple servers or
paths, it does not address congestion on a single switch.
Port Mirroring (B): This is used for monitoring network traffic for troubleshooting and diagnostics
but does not alleviate congestion.
Spanning Tree Protocol (D): STP prevents switching loops in redundant network topologies, but it is
not designed to handle traffic prioritization or congestion issues.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Official Study Guide, Domain 1.5 (Network Optimization), Domain 2.1
(Network Management).
Question # 2
Newly crimped 26ft (8m) STP Cat 6 patch cables were recently installed in one room to replacecables that were damaged by a vacuum cleaner. Now, users in that room are unable to connect to thenetwork. A network technician tests the existing cables first. The 177ft (54m) cable that runs fromthe core switch to the access switch on the floor is working, as is the 115ft (35m) cable run from theaccess switch to the wall jack in the office. Which of the following is the most likely reason the userscannot connect to the network?
A.Mixed UTP and STP cables are being used. B.The patch cables are not plenum rated. C.The cable distance is exceeded. D.An incorrect pinout on the patch cable is being used.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An incorrect pinout on the patch cable could prevent network connectivity due to mismatched
wiring. Even if the cables are the correct length and type, a pinout issue can cause continuity
problems and prevent data transmission. Proper crimping with the correct pinout is essential for
network cables to function. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Network Media
and Topologies)
Question # 3
Which of the following would be violated if an employee accidentally deleted a customer's data?
Availability refers to ensuring that data is accessible when needed. If a customer's data is accidentally
deleted, it impacts availability, as the data can no longer be accessed.
Question # 4
A company is purchasing a 40Gbps broadband connection service from an ISP. Which of the followingshould most likely be configured on the 10G switch to take advantage of the new service?
A. 802.1Q tagging B. Jumbo frames C. Half duplex D. Link aggregation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since the switch supports only 10Gbps per port, achieving 40Gbps throughput requires link
aggregation (LACP), which combines multiple 10Gbps links into one logical interface for higher
bandwidth.
Breakdown of Options:
A . 802.1Q tagging “ VLAN tagging helps segment traffic but does not increase throughput.
B . Jumbo frames “ Jumbo frames reduce overhead but do not increase bandwidth.
C . Half duplex “ Half duplex restricts communication, reducing performance instead of improving it.
D . Link aggregation “ Correct answer. LACP combines multiple 10Gbps links to provide a 40Gbps
connection.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide “ Domain 1.2: Compare and contrast network
topologies and technologies.
IEEE 802.3ad: Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
Question # 5
A technician needs to set up a wireless connection that utilizes MIMO on non-overlapping channels.Which of the following would be the best choice?
A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n
Answer: D
Explanation:
The 802.11n standard supports MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output), which allows multiple
antennas to increase data throughput and improve reliability. Additionally, it uses non-overlapping
channels in the 5 GHz band (and optionally the 2.4 GHz band), making it a good choice for highspeed,
interference-resistant wireless connections. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide,
Chapter on Wireless Technologies)
Question # 6
A network engineer needs to virtualize network services, including a router at a remote branchlocation. Which of the following solutions meets the requirements?
A. NFV B. VRF C. VLAN D. VPC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network Functions Virtualization (NFV): NFV is a technology that virtualizes network services like
routing, firewalls, and load balancers. It allows these services to run on virtual machines rather than
requiring dedicated hardware. This is ideal for remote branch locations where deploying physical
devices is costly and complex.
VRF (B): Virtual Routing and Forwarding is used for segmenting routing tables but does not virtualize
services.
VLAN (C): Virtual Local Area Networks help segregate broadcast domains but are unrelated to
virtualizing network functions.
VPC (D): Virtual Private Cloud is used for cloud computing but does not pertain to virtualizing
network services.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Official Study Guide, Domain 2.1 (Virtualization and Cloud Concepts)
Question # 7
A network administrator is unable to ping a remote server from a newly connected workstation thathas been added to the network. Ping to 127.0.0.1 on the workstation is failing. Which of thefollowing should the administrator perform to diagnose the problem?
A. Verify the NIC interface status. B. Verify the network is not congested. C. Verify the router is not dropping packets. D. Verify that DNS is resolving correctly.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The failure of a ping to 127.0.0.1 (the loopback address) indicates a problem with the workstation's
TCP/IP stack or network interface card (NIC). Since 127.0.0.1 is a local address, the issue is not
related to the network, router, or DNS. The first step in diagnosing this issue is to verify the NIC
interface status to ensure the network adapter is functioning and properly configured.
Why not Verify the network is not congested? Network congestion affects external connectivity, not
the loopback address.
Why not Verify the router is not dropping packets? Router issues are irrelevant since the loopback
ping fails locally.
Why not Verify that DNS is resolving correctly? DNS resolution is not involved in pinging 127.0.0.1,
which uses a direct IP address.
Reference:CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Objective 5.2: Explain the troubleshooting methodology. The
CompTIA Network+ Study Guide (e.g., Chapter 13: Network Troubleshooting) emphasizes that a
failed loopback ping indicates a local TCP/IP stack or NIC issue, and checking the NIC status is the first
diagnostic step.
Question # 8
A network administrator is developing a method of device monitoring with the followingrequirements:Allows for explicit, by user, privilege managementIncludes centralized logging of changesOffers widely accessible remote managementProvides support of service accountsWhich of the following will most closely meet these requirements?
A. SNMP B. API C. SIEM D. SSO
Answer: B
Explanation:
API (Application Programming Interface) enables secure and granular access control, remote
management, and logging, making it ideal for network monitoring.
SNMP (A) is mainly used for device monitoring but lacks centralized logging and user-based
privilege control.
SIEM (C) is a security monitoring tool focused on log collection, not device management.
SSO (D) is related to authentication, not monitoring.
📘Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Documentation “ Network Monitoring &
Management Technologies.
Question # 9
A help desk technician receives a report that users cannot access internet URLs. The technicianperforms ping tests and finds that sites fail when a URL is used but succeed when an IP isused. Which of the following tools should the technician utilize next?
A. tcpdump B. tracert C. nmap D. dig
Answer: D
Explanation:
The issue is clearly related to DNS resolution, as IP-based connections succeed but domain namebased
ones fail.
D. dig (Domain Information Groper) is a DNS lookup tool used to troubleshoot DNS problems by
querying name servers directly.
Other tools are less relevant here:
A . tcpdump is a packet analyzer and is more advanced for deeper traffic analysis.
B . tracert is used to trace the route to a destination, not ideal for DNS issues.
C . nmap is a port scanner and network mapper, not for resolving DNS problems.
📘Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 5.1 “ Given a scenario, use the appropriate network
troubleshooting tools.
Question # 10
A company experiences an incident involving a user who connects an unmanaged switch to thenetwork. Which of the following technologies should the company implement to help avoid similarincidents without conducting an asset inventory?
Port security is a Layer 2 security feature that restricts the number of devices connecting to a
network switch port. It helps prevent unauthorized devices, such as an unmanaged switch, from
being connected to the network.
How Port Security Works:
Limits the number of MAC addresses that can connect to a port.
Can shut down or restrict the port if an unauthorized device is detected.
Prevents users from plugging in unauthorized networking equipment (e.g., unmanaged switches,
hubs).
Incorrect Options:
A . Screened Subnet: A screened subnet (DMZ) is used for isolating external-facing servers, not for
controlling unauthorized network connections.
B . 802.1X: Provides authentication for devices but requires a RADIUS server, which is a more
complex solution than port security.
C . MAC Filtering: Controls which MAC addresses can connect but is difficult to manage and can be
spoofed.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide “ Chapter on Network Security Controls
Question # 11
A support agent receives a report that a remote user's wired devices are constantly disconnectingand have slow speeds. Upon inspection, the support agent sees that the user's coaxial modern has asignal power of -97dB.
A.Removing any spliters connecte to the line B.Switching the devices to wireless C.Moving the devices closer to the modern D.Lowering the network speed
Answer: A
Explanation:
A signal power of -97dB indicates a very weak signal, which can cause connectivity issues and slow
speeds. Splitters on a coaxial line can degrade the signal quality further, so removing them can help
improve the signal strength and overall connection quality.
Signal Quality: Splitters can reduce the signal strength by dividing the signal among multiple lines,
which can be detrimental when the signal is already weak.
Direct Connection: Ensuring a direct connection from the modem to the incoming line can maximize
signal quality and reduce potential points of failure.
Network Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses troubleshooting connectivity
issues and the impact of signal strength on network performance.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides insights on maintaining optimal signal quality in network
setups.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers common network issues, including those
related to signal degradation and ways to mitigate them.
Question # 12
A network engineer is completing a new VoIP installation, but the phones cannot find the TFTPserver to download the configuration files. Which of the following DHCP features would help thephone reach the TFTP server?
A.Exclusions B.Lease time C.Options D.Scope
Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP Options: DHCP options allow additional configuration parameters, such as the address of a
TFTP server, to be provided to clients during the DHCP lease process. This is essential for VoIP
phones to locate the server for configuration files.
Exclusions (A): Prevents certain IP addresses from being assigned by DHCP but does not direct
devices to servers.
Lease time (B): Determines how long an IP address is assigned but does not impact TFTP settings.
Scope (D): Defines a range of IP addresses but does not include additional server information.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Official Study Guide, Domain 1.3 (DHCP Configuration).
Question # 13
Two companies successfully merged. Following the merger, a network administrator identified aconnection bottleneck. The newly formed company plans to acquire a high-end 40GB switch andredesign the network from a three-tier model to a collapsed core. Which of the following should theadministrator do until the new devices are acquired?
A.Implement the FHRP. B.Configure a route selection metric change. C.Install a load balancer. D.Enable link aggregation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The issue described is a network bottleneck due to increased traffic after a merger.
A collapsed core architecture consolidates the core and distribution layers into a single layer to
improve efficiency and reduce latency.
Until the 40GB switch is acquired, Link Aggregation (LAG) (IEEE 802.3ad / LACP) can be used to
combine multiple physical links into a single logical link, increasing bandwidth and reducing
bottlenecks.
FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol) (A) is used for gateway redundancy, not link aggregation.
Route selection metric changes (B) help with routing decisions but don't address physical link
congestion.
Load balancers (C) distribute traffic for applications, not network links.
📘Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Documentation “ Network Architecture and
Performance Optimization.
Question # 14
Network administrators are using the Telnet protocol to administer network devices that are on the192.168.1.0 subnet. Which of the following tools should the administrator use to best identify thedevices?
A.dig B.nmap C.tracert D.telnet
Answer: B
Explanation:
nmap (Network Mapper) is the best tool in this scenario. It can scan the 192.168.1.0 subnet to
discover live hosts, open ports (like Telnet on port 23), and device types. It's ideal for mapping and
auditing the network.
A . dig is a DNS lookup tool; not useful for identifying hosts on a subnet.
C . tracert shows the path packets take to a destination, not for host discovery.
D . telnet is the protocol being used, not a tool for scanning or identifying devices.
📘Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 5.1 “ Given a scenario, use the appropriate network
troubleshooting tools.
Question # 15
A network administrator is troubleshooting issues with a DHCP server at a university. More studentshave recently arrived on campus, and the users are unable to obtain an IP address. Which of thefollowing should the administrator do to address the issue?
A.Enable IP helper. B.Change the subnet mask. C.Increase the scope size. D.Add address exclusions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The issue is that more students have arrived on campus, meaning the available IP addresses are
exhausted. To fix this, the administrator should increase the DHCP scope size to allow more devices
to obtain IP addresses.
Breakdown of Options:
A . Enable IP helper “ IP helper is used to forward DHCP requests across different subnets. However,
the problem here is that the DHCP scope is full, not that requests are not reaching the server.
B . Change the subnet mask “ The subnet mask determines the number of available hosts, but
changing it without increasing the IP pool does not help.
C . Increase the scope size “ Correct answer. Expanding the DHCP scope provides more IP addresses
for assignment.
D . Add address exclusions “ Exclusions reserve IP addresses, which would further reduce available
addresses instead of solving the issue.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide “ Domain 2.4: Compare and contrast IP
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol used to securely access remote devices over an unsecured network. It
provides encrypted command-line access and is a lightweight and secure method of remote
administration.
A . Site-to-site VPN connects entire networks, not just a single host.
B . Telnet is not secure; it transmits data (including credentials) in plaintext.
C . Console access is direct via serial cable, not remote.
📘Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 2.6 “ Configure and troubleshoot remote access.
Question # 17
Following a fire in a data center, the cabling was replaced. Soon after, an administrator noticesnetwork issues. Which of the following are the most likely causes of the network issues? (Selecttwo).
A.The switches are not the correct voltage. B.The HVAC system was not verified as fully functional after the fire. C.The VLAN database was not deleted before the equipment was brought back online. D.The RJ45 cables were replaced with unshielded cables. E.The wrong transceiver type was used for the new termination. F.The new RJ45 cables are a higher category than the old ones.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Unshielded cables (D) are more prone to interference and may not be suitable for certain
environments, especially after a fire where interference could be heightened.
Using the wrong transceiver (E) for new terminations can lead to compatibility issues, causing
network failures.
Question # 18
Which of the following allows a remote user to connect to the network?
An on-path attack (formerly known as a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack) involves intercepting and
potentially altering communications between two parties without their knowledge. This can be done
via techniques like ARP poisoning, rogue access points, or SSL stripping.
Breakdown of Options:
A . Self-signed certificate “ These are untrusted SSL certificates but do not intercept traffic.
B . VLAN hopping “ VLAN hopping exploits VLAN misconfigurations but does not necessarily intercept communications.
C . On-path attack “ Correct answer. This intercepts and modifies traffic between two endpoints.
D . Phishing “ Phishing tricks users into revealing credentials rather than intercepting network traffic.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide “ Domain 3.2: Explain common security concepts.
NIST SP 800-115: Guide to Security Testing and Assessments
Question # 21
A network administrator determines that some switch ports have more errors present thanexpected. The administrator traces the cabling associated with these ports. Which of the followingwould most likely be causing the errors?
A.arp B.tracert C.nmap D.ipconfig
Answer: D
Question # 22
Which of the following typically uses compromised systems that become part of a bot network?
A DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack is often launched from botnets ” networks of
compromised systems (bots or zombies) under the control of an attacker. These devices flood the
target with traffic to disrupt services.
A . Evil twin attack is a wireless spoofing method.
C . XML injection targets web applications.
D . Brute-force attacks repeatedly guess passwords but don't involve a botnet by default.
📘Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.2 “ Identify common security threats and
vulnerabilities.
Question # 23
A technician is implementing a new SD-WAN device with a default configuration. The technicianreceives a URL via email and connects the new device to the internet to complete the installation.Which of the following is this an example of?
A.SASE device installation B.Zero-touch provisioning C.Infrastructure as code D.Configuration management
Answer: B
Explanation:
This process describes Zero-touch provisioning (ZTP), where a device automatically pulls its
configuration from a cloud controller or URL once connected to the internet. It's common in SD-WAN
and modern network appliances.
A . SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) refers to cloud-delivered network security, not a provisioning
method.
C . Infrastructure as code automates infrastructure deployment using code, but this scenario
specifically fits ZTP.
D . Configuration management tracks and maintains system configurations but doesn't describe the
installation process.
📘Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.3 “ Explain remote access methods and
automation.
Question # 24
Which of the following protocols is used to route traffic on the public internet?
A.BGP B.OSPF C.EIGRP D.RIP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the primary protocol used to route traffic on the public internet. It
allows ISPs and large networks to exchange routing information, making it an Exterior Gateway
Protocol (EGP).
Breakdown of Options:
A . BGP “ Correct answer. Used for internet routing and exchanges routing information between ISPs.
B . OSPF “ An Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) used for routing within an autonomous system (not the
public internet).
C . EIGRP “ Cisco's proprietary IGP, used within private networks, not the public internet.
D . RIP “ An older distance-vector protocol, not scalable for the internet.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide “ Domain 1.4: Explain routing technologies.
RFC 4271: Border Gateway Protocol 4 (BG
Question # 25
A network technician sets up a computer on the accounting department floor for a user from themarketing department. The user reports that they cannot access the marketing department's shareddrives but can access the internet. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A.Mismatched switchport duplex B.Misconfigured gateway settings C.Incorrect VLAN assignment D.SVI is assigned to the wrong IP address
Answer: C
Explanation:
The user's inability to access the marketing department's shared drives, despite having internet
access, suggests a network segmentation issue. The most likely cause is an incorrect VLAN
assignment. The computer is physically located on the accounting department floor, and the
switchport is likely configured for the accounting VLAN, not the marketing VLAN. VLANs
segment
network traffic, and if the computer is in the wrong VLAN, it cannot communicate with the marketing
department's resources.
Why not Mismatched switchport duplex? Duplex mismatches cause performance issues (e.g., packet
loss) but not specific access denials to shared drives.
Why not Misconfigured gateway settings? Incorrect gateway settings would prevent internet access,
which the user has.
Why not SVI is assigned to the wrong IP address? A Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) with an incorrect IP
address affects inter-VLAN routing, but this would likely impact multiple users, not just one.
Reference:CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Objective 2.2: Explain the purpose of network segmentation
and VLAN configuration. The CompTIA Network+ Study Guide (e.g., Chapter 6: Switching) explains
that VLANs isolate traffic, and incorrect VLAN assignments prevent access to resources on other
VLANs.
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