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CompTIA 220-1201 Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
An IP address is automatically assigned to a single workstation in an office, but the technician
confirms the IP address is not in the lease pool. This workstation is having issues accessing the
internet and internal file shares. Which of the following address types has been automatically
assigned?
A. APIPA B. Static C. DHCP D. Public IP
Answer: A Explanation: When a workstation automatically assigns itself an IP address that is not part of the DHCP lease pool, the system has most likely configured an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, APIPA addresses fall within the range 169.254.0.0 and are assigned when a device cannot communicate with a DHCP server. APIPA allows limited local network communication but does not provide access to the internet or network resources such as internal file shares that require routing or proper IP configuration. This explains why the workstation experiences connectivity issues. A static IP address is manually configured and would not be automatically assigned. A DHCP address
would come from the defined lease pool, which the technician has confirmed is not the case. A
public IP address is assigned by an ISP and is not used directly on internal workstations.
CompTIA highlights APIPA as a key troubleshooting indicator of DHCP failure or network connectivity
issues, making it the correct answer.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ IP Addressing, DHCP, and Troubleshooting
Question # 2
A technician is building a home desktop computer. The technician wants to prioritize cable
management when considering the type of power supply. Which of the following power supply types
should the technician consider?
A. Back-up B. Modular C. Standard D. Redundant
Answer: B Explanation: A modular power supply is the best choice when cable management is a priority. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply objectives, modular PSUs allow technicians to connect only the cables that are needed for the systems components, reducing clutter inside the case. This improves airflow, simplifies troubleshooting, and creates a cleaner internal layout, which is especially beneficial in home-built desktop systems. Semi-modular and fully modular power supplies offer varying degrees of flexibility, but all modular designs reduce unused cables compared to standard power supplies. A standard (non-modular) power supply has all cables permanently attached, often resulting in excess unused cables that obstruct airflow. A backup power supply refers to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS), which provides battery backup but does not improve internal cable management. A redundant power supply is typically found in enterprise servers and includes multiple PSUs for fault tolerance, not cable management. CompTIA emphasizes modular power supplies as a best practice for clean builds and efficient system design, making this the correct answer. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ Power Supplies, Form Factors, and Cable Management
Question # 3
An administrator is investigating a misuse of printer resources. The administrator suspects an
employee. Which of the following will help the administrator verify the source of misuse?
A. Secure printing B. Print counter C. Audit logs D. User authentication
Answer: C Explanation: To verify the source of printer misuse, the administrator needs detailed records showing who performed specific actions and when. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer management and security objectives, audit logs provide a historical record of printer activity, including user IDs, timestamps, document names, and print volumes. These logs allow administrators to trace printer usage back to a specific user or device, making them the most effective tool for investigating misuse. Secure printing requires users to authenticate at the printer before jobs are released, which helps prevent unauthorized access but does not provide historical evidence of past misuse. A print counter tracks the total number of pages printed but does not identify individual users or specific print jobs. User authentication ensures that only authorized users can access the printer, but by itself it does not provide detailed usage tracking unless combined with logging. CompTIA emphasizes audit logging as a critical component of accountability and security across systems, including printers. When investigating policy violations or misuse, audit logs are the primary source of verifiable evidence. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ Printer Security, Monitoring, and Management
Question # 4
The computers and IP phones at an office experience degraded performance during the day. The
issue does not occur before the start of business. Which of the following will resolve the issue?
A. Changing the switches to ones with higher capacity B. Using VLANs to segregate data and voice traffic C. Adding RAM to the PCs and additional VoIP lines D. Updating the firmware on the switches
Answer: B Explanation: Degraded performance that occurs only during business hours strongly suggests network congestion caused by simultaneous data and voice traffic. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, combining voice (VoIP) and data traffic on the same network without proper segmentation can lead to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially during peak usage periods. Implementing VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allows administrators to logically separate voice and data traffic, enabling better traffic management and prioritization. VLANs also support Quality of
Service (QoS) policies that ensure time-sensitive voice traffic is prioritized over standard data traffic,
improving call quality and overall performance.
Replacing switches with higher-capacity models is costly and unnecessary if proper traffic
segmentation has not yet been implemented. Adding RAM to PCs or VoIP lines does not address
network-level congestion. Firmware updates may improve stability but will not resolve sustained
performance degradation caused by traffic contention.
CompTIA highlights VLAN implementation as a best practice for environments that use IP phones,
especially when performance issues occur during high utilization periods.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ VLANs, VoIP, and Network Performance
Question # 5
Which of the following is the best to use to stream real-time video from a network camera?
A. UDP B. TCP C. FTP D. RDP
Answer: A Explanation: UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is the preferred protocol for real-time video streaming, such as feeds from network cameras. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking protocols objectives, UDP prioritizes speed and low latency over guaranteed delivery, making it ideal for time-sensitive applications. Real-time video streaming can tolerate occasional packet loss, but it cannot tolerate delays caused by retransmissions. UDP does not perform error checking or packet retransmission, which reduces overhead and ensures smooth, continuous playback. This is critical for live video feeds where delayed packets are useless. TCP, while reliable, introduces latency due to acknowledgments and retransmissions, making it unsuitable for real-time streaming. FTP is a file transfer protocol and does not support live streaming. RDP is used for remote desktop access and is not designed for transmitting continuous real-time video streams from cameras. CompTIA emphasizes understanding protocol selection based on application requirements, particularly distinguishing between reliability and performance needs. For live video, UDP is the optimal choice. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ Network Protocols and Use Cases
Question # 6
Which of the following is an example of VDI?
A. Streaming a GUI to thin clients from a server B. Provisioning a sandbox as a test environment C. Providing high-performance workstations with a local OS D. Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor
Answer: A Explanation: Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) delivers a desktop operating system hosted on a centralized server and streams the graphical user interface (GUI) to endpoint devices such as thin clients, zero clients, or standard PCs. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, VDI allows users to access their desktop environments remotely while all processing and data remain on the server. Option A accurately describes this model: a GUI streamed from a server to thin clients. This approach improves centralized management, enhances security, and simplifies endpoint hardware requirements. Provisioning a sandbox is an example of test or development virtualization, not desktop virtualization. High-performance workstations with a local OS are physical desktops, not VDI. Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor describes server virtualization, not desktop delivery. CompTIA highlights VDI as a common enterprise solution that separates the desktop environment from the physical device, enabling flexibility, scalability, and centralized control. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ Virtualization, VDI, and Cloud Concepts
Question # 7
A user connects a PC to a projector and configures the projector to use HDMI. However, when the
user tries to use the projector, the projector shows a black screen with the message œHDMI2 no
signal found. The user reports that the projector worked properly during a previous meeting. Which
of the following should the user do to fix the issue?
A. Replace the bulb. B. Swap the video cable. C. Change the input source. D. Update the video drivers.
Answer: C Explanation: The error message œHDMI2 no signal found indicates that the projector is set to an input source that
is not currently receiving a video signal. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) display and
troubleshooting objectives, input source selection is one of the first items to verify when an external
display shows a black screen but powers on correctly.
Many projectors have multiple HDMI ports (HDMI1, HDMI2, etc.). If the PC is connected to a different
HDMI port than the one currently selected, the projector will display a œno signal message even
though the cable and device are functioning properly. Changing the input source to match the
connected HDMI port resolves the issue quickly.
Replacing the bulb would not fix a œno signal message, as the projector is clearly powered on and
displaying text. Swapping the video cable is a valid troubleshooting step, but the explicit HDMI2
message points to an incorrect input selection. Updating video drivers is unnecessary when the
device worked previously and the issue is isolated to input detection.
CompTIA emphasizes verifying correct input selection as a primary step when troubleshooting
external display issues.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ Display Devices and Troubleshooting
Question # 8
A technician must upgrade a computer system to improve its overall processing performance. Which
of the following should the technician focus on to ensure maximum system performance?
A. Integrated GPU B. Power connectors C. Voltage regulator module D. Clock frequency
Answer: D Explanation: Clock frequency is one of the most significant factors influencing a computer systems processing performance. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) CPU and performance objectives, clock speed”measured in gigahertz (GHz)”determines how many instruction cycles a processor can perform per second. Higher clock frequencies generally result in faster execution of instructions, leading to improved performance in both single-threaded and multi-threaded workloads. While modern CPUs also rely on core count, cache size, and architecture efficiency, clock frequency remains a primary metric for evaluating raw processing speed. An integrated GPU affects graphics performance rather than overall CPU processing capability. Power connectors ensure proper electrical delivery but do not directly improve processing performance. The voltage regulator module (VRM) stabilizes and regulates power supplied to the CPU but does not itself increase processing speed. CompTIA expects candidates to recognize clock frequency as a key determinant of CPU performance when upgrading or comparing processors. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ CPU Architecture and Performance
Question # 9
A user's computer can connect to internal network resources but cannot access websites on the
internet. Other users on the same network do not have this issue. Which of the following should a
technician do first to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Verify the computer's DNS settings. B. Replace the network cable. C. Restart the DHCP server. D. Adjust the firewall rules on the router.
Answer: A Explanation: If a computer can access internal network resources but cannot reach external websites, the most likely issue is a DNS configuration problem. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking troubleshooting methodology, DNS should be one of the first items checked when internet access fails but local connectivity remains intact. DNS translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses. If DNS settings are incorrect, missing, or pointing to an invalid server, the computer will be unable to resolve website names even though it has network connectivity. Since other users on the same network can access the internet, the issue is isolated to the individual workstation. Replacing the network cable is unnecessary because internal connectivity is already working. Restarting the DHCP server would impact all users, not just one. Adjusting firewall rules on the router would affect the entire network rather than a single computer. CompTIA emphasizes starting with least disruptive and most likely causes when troubleshooting. Verifying DNS settings aligns with this best-practice approach. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide “ Network Troubleshooting and DNS New Topic: Topic 2, Simulation Performance Based Questions
Question # 10
Which of the following describes an environment in which virtual machines are hosted on premises
and in a cloud?
A. Hybrid B. Public C. Private D. SaaS
Answer: A Explanation: A hybrid environment combines both on-premises infrastructure and cloud-based resources,
allowing virtual machines to operate seamlessly between the two. CompTIA A+ describes hybrid
cloud as a deployment model where organizations maintain their own private servers or
virtualization hosts while also leveraging public cloud platforms such as AWS, Azure, or Google
Cloud. This model supports flexibility, scalability, and gradual migration, making it ideal for
businesses not ready to fully abandon local infrastructure.
In this model, workloads can move between the local environment and the cloud depending on
performance requirements, cost considerations, or redundancy needs. Additionally, hybrid clouds
allow resource sharing, data synchronization, and load balancing across both environments.
A public cloud hosts resources entirely in the providers data center, offering no on-premises
integration. A private cloud exists solely within the organizations infrastructure with no external
shared resources. SaaS delivers applications, not infrastructure, meaning it cannot host or manage
virtual machines.
Therefore, an environment where VMs exist both on-site and in the cloud is best described as a
Hybrid cloud.
Question # 11
A small business is growing and wants to scale its computing capacity. The business wants to
continue using on-site equipment until it is EOL. The solution must be able to share data with the
local data center. Which of the following models should a technician suggest?
A. Public B. Community C. Hybrid D. Private E. SaaS
Answer: C Explanation: The requirements describe an environment transitioning gradually from on-site hardware to scalable cloud services. The business wishes to continue using its existing local equipment until end of life, while also expanding computing resources beyond what the on-premises infrastructure can handle. Additionally, the cloud environment must be able to share data with the internal data center. This aligns perfectly with a hybrid cloud model, which CompTIA A+ defines as a combination of private (on-premises) and public cloud resources operating together. Hybrid cloud enables secure data sharing, workload distribution, and scaling without eliminating existing hardware investments. It allows organizations to offload high-demand processes to the cloud while maintaining sensitive data or critical services on-site. A private cloud (D) would not allow scaling into a public provider efficiently. A public cloud (A) replaces internal resources instead of complementing them. A community cloud (B) is shared among organizations with similar compliance requirements”not applicable here. SaaS (E) refers to hosted applications, not infrastructure scalability. Thus, a Hybrid cloud model fulfills all stated requirements: seamless data sharing, scalable computing, and continued use of on-site equipment.
Question # 12
Which of the following should a technician create to assign a permanent IP address to a PC using
DHCP?
A. Reservation B. Lease C. Exclusion D. Scope option
Answer: A Explanation: DHCP normally assigns IP addresses dynamically using timed leases, meaning the address may change after expiration. However, many devices”such as servers, printers, or specialized workstations”require permanent, predictable IP addresses. CompTIA A+ identifies a DHCP reservation as the correct method for assigning a consistent IP while still using DHCP. A reservation binds a devices MAC address to a specific IP address in the DHCP server. Each time the device requests an address, the DHCP server recognizes the MAC address and issues the same IP. This provides reliability while still allowing centralized management of network addressing. A lease is temporary and not permanent. An exclusion simply removes certain IP addresses from the assignable pool”it does not assign any device a fixed address. A scope option configures additional network parameters such as DNS, gateway, or WINS settings but does not assign static IPs. Therefore, a reservation is the correct method to permanently assign an IP address using DHCP without requiring static configuration on the device itself.
Question # 13
Which of the following connection methods allows a mobile device to share an LTE connection with
other nearby devices?
A. Bluetooth B. NFC C. Cellular D. Hotspot
Answer: D Explanation:
Mobile devices can share their LTE or cellular data connection using a feature called tethering, more
commonly known as hotspot mode. According to CompTIA A+ objectives on mobile networking
technologies, a hotspot allows a smartphone or tablet to become a mini wireless router,
broadcasting a Wi-Fi signal that nearby devices can connect to. The LTE (or 5G) connection is then
shared over Wi-Fi, enabling laptops, tablets, or other phones to access the internet through the
mobile device.
Bluetooth is capable of tethering but provides much lower bandwidth and slower speeds”not ideal
for sharing LTE widely. NFC is used for close-range data exchange or payment transactions and
cannot share internet service. "Cellular" refers to the phones own mobile network connection, not
the mechanism for sharing it with others.
Hotspot functionality is specifically built into modern mobile OSs and supports WPA2 encryption,
password protection, and device whitelisting. This makes it the most common and efficient method
to share LTE connectivity with multiple nearby devices.
Thus, Hotspot (D) is the correct answer.
Question # 14
A drive for a RAID 1 array fails. Users are concerned that information could be lost. Which of the
following is the best way to manage the situation?
A. Repairing and reinstalling the defective disk to recover any files B. Discarding the defective disk without further action C. Replacing the defective disk and syncing the new one so that all files are retained D. Finding the latest backup of the legacy server and restoring it to transfer the files
Answer: C Explanation: A RAID 1 array uses disk mirroring, meaning all data is written identically to two drives. When one drive fails, the other contains a complete, current copy of the data. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that RAID 1 is designed for fault tolerance, allowing continued operation even after a disk failure. The correct action is to replace the defective drive and allow the RAID controller to rebuild (sync) the mirror onto the new disk. This restores redundancy and ensures ongoing data protection. The system can typically continue running during the rebuild process. Option A is incorrect because attempting to repair a failed drive is unreliable and unnecessary”RAID 1 already provides a healthy copy. Option B ignores the importance of restoring redundancy, leaving the system vulnerable to data loss if the remaining drive fails. Option D (restore from backup) is unnecessary because RAID 1 already preserves the data. Therefore, the best solution is to install a new drive and resynchronize the array, preserving all data with minimal disruption.
Question # 15
A user's smartphone frequently disconnects from Wi-Fi networks, particularly in crowded areas like
airports and coffee shops. The user also notices that their device shows a lower Wi-Fi signal strength
compared to other devices in the same location. Which of the following is likely contributing to the
smartphone's Wi-Fi connectivity issues?
A. The smartphone's antenna may be malfunctioning. B. The smartphone may have an outdated Wi-Fi standard. C. The smartphone may be experiencing interference from nearby devices. D. The smartphone's power settings may be affecting performance.
Answer: A Explanation:
The symptoms clearly point to a hardware-level signal degradation issue, which is most commonly
caused by a malfunctioning or damaged Wi-Fi antenna in the smartphone. CompTIA A+ mobile
device troubleshooting emphasizes comparing the affected device's signal strength with other
nearby devices. In this case, other devices in the same location have stronger Wi-Fi signals, meaning
the network itself is functioning normally. The consistent low signal across multiple networks
strongly suggests antenna failure.
Modern smartphones use internal antenna assemblies located along the frame or behind the back
cover. If the antenna becomes loose, damaged, or obstructed, the device may show weak or unstable
Wi-Fi connectivity, especially in crowded environments where strong, stable reception is required to
maintain a connection. Option B (outdated Wi-Fi standard) would limit speed but not cause significant signal weakness
compared to surrounding devices. Option C (interference) affects all devices in an area similarly”not
just one device. Option D (power settings) may reduce background activity or scanning frequency,
but it does not cause consistently low signal strength.
Therefore, the most likely cause is a malfunctioning Wi-Fi antenna inside the smartphone.
Question # 16
A technician has built a new computer. On the initial startup, the computer passes POST but will not
turn on the operating system. Which of the following components has failed?
A. Audio card B. CPU C. Power supply D. HDD
Answer: D Explanation:
When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM,
motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level.
POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power
delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from
suspicion.
The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to
load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device”such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive”
containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a
boot error, such as œNo boot device found, œInsert boot media, or similar messages. This is
consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.
A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions
normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS
loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS
boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.
Thus, the failed component is the HDD.
Question # 17
A computer training institute needs to implement multiple VLANs that must:
Connect to each other with minimum hardware
Communicate traffic at wire speed
Which of the following is the most suitable?
A. Web application firewall B. DDoS appliance C. Layer 3 switch D. Router
Answer: C Explanation: A Layer 3 switch is the optimal solution when multiple VLANs must intercommunicate while maintaining high performance and minimal hardware complexity. CompTIA A+ explains that Layer 3 switches combine the capabilities of switching (Layer 2) and routing (Layer 3), allowing VLAN traffic to be routed internally at wire speed, without the latency typically associated with traditional routers. Layer 3 switches use hardware-based routing, meaning they forward inter-VLAN traffic using ASICs (Application-Specific Integrated Circuits). This allows them to achieve extremely fast throughput, ideal for environments like computer training institutes where multiple VLANs may be used for student labs, instructor networks, and administrative traffic. A router (D) can route between VLANs but introduces more latency due to software-based routing and typically requires additional equipment. A Web application firewall (A) and DDoS appliance (B) are security devices unrelated to internal VLAN communication. Because the institute requires minimal hardware and high-speed inter-VLAN communication, the Layer 3 switch is the only CompTIA-supported device that meets both requirements simultaneously.
Question # 18
A healthcare facility is printing government documents on preprinted forms. The output has shifted
downward on the paper and the printed data is not aligned with the blank spaces on the forms.
Which of the following should a technician do first?
A. Verify that the correct paper type is loaded into the tray. B. Make sure that PostScript drivers are being used. C. Check the orientation settings of the printer. D. Ensure that the pickup rollers are firmly gripping the paper.
Answer: A Explanation: When printing on preprinted forms, precise alignment is critical. If print output shifts downward on the page, the first step is to ensure that the correct paper type and form stock are loaded properly. CompTIA A+ emphasizes verifying media type and tray configuration when dealing with alignment issues, especially in environments using specialized or preformatted paper. Preprinted forms often require thicker media, specialty settings, or exact tray loading orientation to ensure feeding accuracy. If the wrong paper type is selected on the printer or print driver, the printer may adjust feed rate, roller pressure, or margin expectations incorrectly, causing vertical misalignment. Thus, confirming the correct paper type is loaded”and that the printer is configured for that type”is the most fundamental starting point. Orientation settings (C) could affect sideways alignment but not vertical shifting. Pickup rollers (D) can cause skewing or paper jams, but they generally do not cause consistent downward shifts. PostScript drivers (B) relate to graphic rendering but do not affect form alignment unless dealing with complex images, which is not indicated here. Therefore, confirming correct paper type and loading aligns with CompTIAs troubleshooting methodology: always check the simplest, most likely physical cause first”especially with form
printing.
Question # 19
Which of the following tools will a technician most likely use to identify an unlabeled network
connection?
A. Network tap B. Loopback plug C. Cable tester D. Toner probe
Answer: D Explanation: To locate or identify an unlabeled network connection, the tool most suited for tracing cables through walls, ceilings, or patch panels is a toner probe (also called a tone generator and probe kit).
CompTIA A+ describes this tool as essential for cable identification: the technician attaches the tone
generator to one end of the network cable, and the probe detects the signal on the other end, even
across long distances or through bundled wiring.
This makes the toner probe ideal for environments where cables are unlabeled, routed through
structured cabling systems, or mixed with other wires. It allows the technician to listen for the
distinctive tone, confirming the cables termination point.
A cable tester (C) verifies wiring integrity and pinouts but cannot trace a cable through physical
pathways. It is used after identification, not during it. A loopback plug (B) is used for port testing and
NIC diagnostics, not cable tracing. A network tap (A) is used for traffic monitoring, security analysis,
and packet capture; it does not help locate cables.
Therefore, the toner probe is the correct tool for identifying and tracing an unlabeled network cable,
aligning with CompTIAs recommended cable management and troubleshooting procedures.
Question # 20
A shared printer experiences an outage when users submit numerous print jobs at the same time.
Which of the following will an engineer most likely do after verifying network connectivity?
A. Reboot the server. B. Reinstall the printer drivers. C. Reset the printer to factory settings. D. Restart the spooler service.
Answer: D Explanation: In networked print environments, print jobs are processed through a system service called the print spooler. CompTIA A+ stresses that when shared printers fail due to job overload, the problem often lies with a hung or overloaded spooler service, especially when multiple jobs are sent simultaneously. The spooler queues, organizes, and processes print jobs; if it becomes overwhelmed or corrupted, printing stops completely even though the network and printer hardware remain functional. After verifying network connectivity”as the question states” the next logical and CompTIA-aligned troubleshooting step is to restart the spooler service (D). Restarting it clears stuck or corrupt jobs, reinitializes print processing, and restores functionality without requiring a full server reboot or reinstallation of drivers. Rebooting the server (A) may work but is unnecessarily disruptive and affects multiple services. Reinstalling printer drivers (B) is only warranted for driver corruption issues and is not the first step for spooler congestion. Resetting the printer to factory defaults (C) erases settings and is far too drastic for a simple print queue issue. Therefore, the most efficient and technically correct action is restarting the print spooler service, restoring printing immediately while maintaining normal server operations.
Question # 21
An employee requires a workstation with three high-end graphics cards to render 3-D models. A
technician must choose a power supply that meets the power requirements for the components and
takes into consideration the mission-critical nature of the work. Which of the following meet the
requirements? (Select two).
A. 12V output B. Modularity C. 20-pin motherboard connector D. Redundancy E. 3.3V output F. 240 VAC input
Answer: B,D Explanation: A workstation running three high-end GPUs requires a power supply capable of both high wattage and stable, reliable output. In CompTIA A+ power supply fundamentals, modularity and redundancy are emphasized for high-performance and mission-critical systems. Modularity (B) allows the technician to connect only the necessary cables, reducing clutter, improving airflow, and enabling proper cable routing to multiple GPUs. High-end graphics cards require multiple PCIe connectors, and modular PSUs provide the flexibility to attach the exact number of required GPU power cables. This is important for systems where space management and cooling efficiency directly affect performance and component longevity. Redundancy (D) is critical for mission-critical workstations used for 3-D modeling and rendering. A redundant power supply ensures that if one PSU module fails, the system continues running without interruption. CompTIA A+ highlights redundancy as a key feature in professional environments where uptime is essential. These systems typically use dual hot-swappable power modules to guarantee continuous power delivery. The other options do not meaningfully address the requirements. A 12V output is standard on all PSUs. A 20-pin connector is outdated; modern motherboards use 24-pin. The 3.3V rail is not relevant to GPU loads, and 240 VAC input only refers to wall power compatibility, not PSU capability. Therefore, modularity and redundancy best meet the workstations needs.
Question # 22
Which of the following best describes a Type 2 hypervisor?
A. It works as a firewall to control network traffic. B. It interacts directly with the underlying hardware. C. It runs on a host operating system. D. It brings higher CPU capabilities to virtual machines.
Answer: C Explanation: CompTIA A+ divides hypervisors into two main categories: Type 1 (bare-metal) and Type 2 (hosted). A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing host operating system such as Windows, macOS, or Linux. It relies on the host OS for device drivers, hardware interaction, and resource management. Examples include VMware Workstation, Oracle VirtualBox, and Parallels Desktop. Type 2 hypervisors are ideal for lab environments, testing, learning, and small-scale virtualization because they do not require dedicated hardware or direct hardware control. The host OS loads first, and the hypervisor runs as an application, allowing users to create and manage virtual machines from within the OS environment. Option B describes a Type 1 hypervisor, which installs directly on hardware without a host OS. Option
A is unrelated, as firewalls are separate from virtualization technology. Option D is incorrect because
hypervisors do not inherently increase CPU capabilities; they merely allocate existing hardware
resources to virtual machines.
Thus, the correct and CompTIA-aligned description of a Type 2 hypervisor is that it runs on a host
operating system.
Question # 23
A technician needs to replace a laptop's display assembly. Which of the following should the
technician do to complete this task?
A. Reattach the heat sinks. B. Reconnect the wireless antennas. C. Install a new CPU fan. D. Reset the BIOS to default settings.
Answer: B Explanation: Laptop display assemblies typically include not only the LCD panel but also the webcam, microphone, display cable, and critically, the Wi-Fi antennas. In most laptops, Wi-Fi antennas are built into the display bezel, because the elevated position allows for stronger wireless signal reception. When replacing the entire display assembly, the antennas must be carefully disconnected and reconnected during reinstallation. CompTIA A+ emphasizes proper cable routing and antenna reattachment as essential steps in laptop hardware disassembly and reassembly. Failing to reconnect these antennas results in weak or nonfunctional wireless connectivity, even though the display replacement itself may be successful. Heat sinks and CPU fans are located on the motherboard and are unrelated to display assembly replacement. Resetting BIOS settings is unnecessary unless troubleshooting firmware-related issues, not replacing hardware components like a display. Therefore, the only action that aligns with standard laptop design and CompTIA A+ procedures is ensuring that the wireless antennas are reconnected. Thus, the correct answer is B.
Question # 24
A technician upgrades a CPU heat sink with a higher-performing model. While stress testing the
computer, the technician finds that the CPU temperatures have drastically increased. Which of the
following is most likely causing the issue?
A. Decreased CPU voltage B. Higher fan RPM C. Airflow interruption D. Missing thermal paste
Answer: D Explanation: Whenever a CPU heat sink is removed or replaced, thermal paste must be reapplied. Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU heat spreader and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat transfer. Without it, there is a significant air gap, which acts as an insulator, causing CPU temperatures to rise dramatically even under light load. CompTIA A+ stresses thermal compound application as a key step in CPU cooling installation. The scenario indicates that temperatures increased drastically after upgrading to a better heat sink. A higher-performing heat sink should improve temperatures, not worsen them”unless a critical installation step was missed. Missing thermal paste is the most common cause of this symptom and easily explains the sudden overheating. Decreased CPU voltage would lower temperatures, not raise them. Higher fan RPM increases cooling efficiency, not reduces it. Airflow interruption is possible but less likely in a simple heat sink upgrade scenario unless the technician installed the CPU cooler incorrectly; however, the most direct and common cause described by CompTIA is missing thermal paste. Thus, D is the correct answer.
Question # 25
Which of the following DNS records displays the destination of incoming email on a domain?
A. CNAME B. TXT C. MX D. AAAA
Answer: C Explanation: DNS contains different record types that serve specific purposes. To determine where incoming email should be delivered for a particular domain, DNS uses an MX (Mail Exchange) record. CompTIA A+ identifies MX records as essential for routing mail from external senders to the appropriate mail server assigned to a domain. The MX record specifies: The mail server hostname responsible for receiving messages
Priority values, which determine which server to try first
The server destination for SMTP traffic
When someone sends an email, the sending mail server queries DNS to find the MX record for the
recipients domain. The SMTP server then relays the email to the server listed in that record.
CNAME is used for aliasing hostnames, TXT is used for verification/security (SPF, DKIM), and AAAA
maps a hostname to an IPv6 address. None of these direct email delivery. Only MX records are
designed to instruct mail servers where to deliver incoming email.
Thus, the correct answer is MX.
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