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Eccouncil 312-50v12 Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
Mike, a security engineer, was recently hired by BigFox Ltd. The company recently
experienced disastrous DoS attacks. The management had instructed Mike to build
defensive strategies for the company's IT infrastructure to thwart DoS/DDoS attacks. Mike
deployed some countermeasures to handle jamming and scrambling attacks. What is the
countermeasure Mike applied to defend against jamming and scrambling attacks?
A. Allow the usage of functions such as gets and strcpy B. Allow the transmission of all types of addressed packets at the ISP level C. Implement cognitive radios in the physical layer D. A Disable TCP SYN cookie protection
Firewalk has just completed the second phase (the scanning phase) and a technician
receives the output shown below. What conclusions can be drawn based on these scan
results?
TCP port 21 no response TCP port 22 no response
TCP port 23 Time-to-live exceeded
A. The lack of response from ports 21 and 22 indicate that those services are not running
on the destination server B. The scan on port 23 was able to make a connection to the destination host prompting the firewall to respond with a TTL error C. The scan on port 23 passed through the filtering device. This indicates that port 23 was not blocked at the firewall D. The firewall itself is blocking ports 21 through 23 and a service is listening on port 23 of the target host
Answer: C
Question # 3
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Packet Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model. B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model. C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 & Layer 3 of the OSI model. D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.
Answer: B
Question # 4
An organization has automated the operation of critical infrastructure from a remote
location. For this purpose, all the industrial control systems are connected to the Internet.
To empower the manufacturing process, ensure the reliability of industrial networks, and
reduce downtime and service disruption, the organization deckled to install an OT security
tool that further protects against security incidents such as cyber espionage, zero-day
attacks, and malware. Which of the following tools must the organization employ to protect
its critical infrastructure?
A. Robotium B. BalenaCloud C. Flowmon D. IntentFuzzer
Answer: C
Explanation: Source: https://www.flowmon.com
Flowmon empowers manufacturers and utility companies to ensure the reliability of
their industrial networks confidently to avoid downtime and disruption of service
continuity. This can be achieved by continuous monitoring and anomaly detection
so
that malfunctioning devices or security incidents, such as cyber espionage, zerodays, or
malware, can be reported and remedied as quickly as possible.
Question # 5
Stella, a professional hacker, performs an attack on web services by exploiting a
vulnerability that provides additional routing information in the SOAP header to support
asynchronous communication. This further allows the transmission of web-service requests
and response messages using different TCP connections. Which of the following attack
techniques is used by Stella to compromise the web services?
A. XML injection B. WS-Address spoofing C. SOAPAction spoofing D. Web services parsing attacks
Answer: B
Explanation: WS-Address provides additional routing information in the SOAP header to
support asynchronous communication. This technique allows the transmission of web
service requests and response messages using different TCP connections
https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-d&q=WS-Address+spoofing
CEH V11 Module 14 Page 1896
Question # 6
What type of a vulnerability/attack is it when the malicious person forces the user’s browser
to send an authenticated request to a server?
A. Session hijacking B. Server side request forgery C. Cross-site request forgery D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: C
Question # 7
Which of the following provides a security professional with most information about the
system’s security posture?
A. Phishing, spamming, sending trojans B. Social engineering, company site browsing tailgating C. Wardriving, warchalking, social engineering D. Port scanning, banner grabbing service identification
Answer: D
Question # 8
Attempting an injection attack on a web server based on responses to True/False
QUESTION NO:s is called which of the following?
A. Compound SQLi B. Blind SQLi C. Classic SQLi D. DMS-specific SQLi
Answer: B Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection#Blind_SQL_injection
Blind SQL injection is used when a web application is vulnerable to an SQL injection but
the results of the injection are not visible to the attacker. The page with the vulnerability
may not be one that displays data but will display differently depending on the results of a
logical statement injected into the legitimate SQL statement called for that page. This type
of attack has traditionally been considered time-intensive because a new statement needed
to be crafted for each bit recovered, and depending on its structure, the attack may consist
of many unsuccessful requests. Recent advancements have allowed each request to
recover multiple bits, with no unsuccessful requests, allowing for more consistent and
efficient extraction.
Question # 9
John, a professional hacker, performs a network attack on a renowned organization and
gains unauthorized access to the target network. He remains in the network without being
detected for a long time and obtains sensitive information without sabotaging the
organization. Which of the following attack techniques is used by John?
A. Advanced persistent theft B. threat Diversion theft C. Spear-phishing sites D. insider threat
Answer: A
Explanation: An advanced persistent threat (APT) may be a broad term wont to describe
AN attack campaign within which an intruder, or team of intruders, establishes a bootleg,
long presence on a network so as to mine sensitive knowledge.
The targets of those assaults, that square measure terribly fastidiously chosen and
researched, usually embrace massive enterprises or governmental networks. the
implications of such intrusions square measure huge, and include:
Intellectual property thieving (e.g., trade secrets or patents)
Compromised sensitive info (e.g., worker and user personal data)
The sabotaging of essential structure infrastructures (e.g., information deletion)
Total website takeovers
Executing an APT assault needs additional resources than a regular internet application
attack. The perpetrators square measure typically groups of intimate cybercriminals having
substantial resource. Some APT attacks square measure government-funded and used as
cyber warfare weapons.
APT attacks dissent from ancient internet application threats, in that:
They’re considerably additional advanced.
They’re not hit and run attacks—once a network is infiltrated, the culprit remains so
as to realize the maximum amount info as potential.
They’re manually dead (not automated) against a selected mark and
indiscriminately launched against an outsized pool of targets.
They typically aim to infiltrate a complete network, as opposition one specific half.
More common attacks, like remote file inclusion (RFI), SQL injection and cross-site
scripting (XSS), square measure oftentimes employed by perpetrators to ascertain a
footing in a very targeted network. Next, Trojans and backdoor shells square measure
typically wont to expand that foothold and make a persistent presence inside the targeted
perimeter.
Question # 10
The security team of Debry Inc. decided to upgrade Wi-Fi security to thwart attacks such as
dictionary attacks and key recovery attacks. For this purpose, the security team started
implementing cutting-edge technology that uses a modern key establishment protocol
called the simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE), also known as dragonfly key
exchange, which replaces the PSK concept. What is the Wi-Fi encryption technology
implemented by Debry Inc.?
A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. WPA3
Answer: D
Question # 11
You are logged in as a local admin on a Windows 7 system and you need to launch the
Computer Management Console from command line.
Which command would you use?
A. c:\compmgmt.msc B. c:\services.msc C. c:\ncpa.cp D. c:\gpedit
Answer: A
Explanation:
To start the Computer Management Console from command line just type compmgmt.msc
/computer:computername in your run box or at the command line and it should
automatically open the Computer Management console.
References: http://www.waynezim.com/tag/compmgmtmsc/
Question # 12
On performing a risk assessment, you need to determine the potential impacts when some
of the critical business processes of the company interrupt its service.
What is the name of the process by which you can determine those critical businesses?
A. Emergency Plan Response (EPR) B. Business Impact Analysis (BIA) C. Risk Mitigation D. Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP)
Answer: B
Question # 13
Which of the following Google advanced search operators helps an attacker in gathering
information about websites that are similar to a specified target URL?
A. [inurl:] B. [related:] C. [info:] D. [site:]
Answer: B Explanation: related:This operator displays websites that are similar or related to the URL specified.
Question # 14
A post-breach forensic investigation revealed that a known vulnerability in Apache Struts
was to blame for the Equifax data breach that affected 143 million customers. A fix was
available from the software vendor for several months prior 10 the Intrusion. This Is likely a
failure in which of the following security processes?
A. vendor risk management B. Security awareness training C. Secure deployment lifecycle D. Patch management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Patch management is that the method that helps acquire, test and install multiple patches
(code changes) on existing applications and software tools on a pc, enabling systems to remain updated on existing patches and determining that patches are the suitable ones.
Managing patches so becomes simple and simple.
Patch Management is usually done by software system firms as a part of their internal
efforts to mend problems with the various versions of software system programs and also
to assist analyze existing software system programs and discover any potential lack of
security features or different upgrades.
Software patches help fix those problems that exist and are detected solely once the
software’s initial unharness. Patches mostly concern security while there are some patches
that concern the particular practicality of programs as well.
Question # 15
Which of the following is a passive wireless packet analyzer that works on Linux-based
systems?
A. Burp Suite B. OpenVAS C. tshark D. Kismet
Answer: C
Question # 16
Ben purchased a new smartphone and received some updates on it through the OTA
method. He received two messages: one with a PIN from the network operator and another
asking him to enter the PIN received from the operator. As soon as he entered the PIN, the
smartphone started functioning in an abnormal manner. What is the type of attack
performed on Ben in the above scenario?
A. Advanced SMS phishing B. Bypass SSL pinning C. Phishing D. Tap 'n ghost attack
Answer: A
Question # 17
Dorian Is sending a digitally signed email to Polly, with which key is Dorian signing this
message and how is Poly validating It?
A. Dorian is signing the message with his public key. and Poly will verify that the message
came from Dorian by using Dorian's private key. B. Dorian Is signing the message with Polys public key. and Poly will verify that the message came from Dorian by using Dorian's public key. C. Dorian is signing the message with his private key. and Poly will verify that the message came from Dorian by using Dorian's public key. D. Dorian is signing the message with Polys private key. and Poly will verify mat the message came from Dorian by using Dorian's public key.
Answer: C
Explanation: https://blog.mailfence.com/how-do-digital-signatures-work/https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_signature
A digital signature is a mathematical technique used to validate the authenticity and
integrity of a message, software, or digital document. It's the digital equivalent of a
handwritten signature or stamped seal, but it offers far more inherent security. A digital
signature is intended to solve the problem of tampering and impersonation in digital
communications.
Digital signatures can provide evidence of origin, identity, and status of electronic
documents, transactions, or digital messages. Signers can also use them to acknowledge
informed consent.
Digital signatures are based on public-key cryptography, also known as asymmetric
cryptography. Two keys are generated using a public key algorithm, such as RSA (RivestShamir-Adleman), creating a mathematically linked pair of keys, one private and one
public.
Digital signatures work through public-key cryptography's two mutually authenticating
cryptographic keys. The individual who creates the digital signature uses a private key to
encrypt signature-related data, while the only way to decrypt that data is with the signer's
public key.
Question # 18
Harper, a software engineer, is developing an email application. To ensure the
confidentiality of email messages. Harper uses a symmetric-key block cipher having a
classical 12- or 16-round Feistel network with a block size of 64 bits for encryption, which
includes large 8 x 32-bit S-boxes (S1, S2, S3, S4) based on bent functions, modular
addition and subtraction, key-dependent rotation, and XOR operations. This cipher also
uses a masking key(Km1)and a rotation key (Kr1) for performing its functions. What is the
algorithm employed by Harper to secure the email messages?
A. CAST-128 B. AES C. GOST block cipher D. DES
Answer: A
Question # 19
Which access control mechanism allows for multiple systems to use a central
authentication server (CAS) that
permits users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems?
A. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) C. Single sign-on D. Windows authentication
Answer: C
Question # 20
Miley, a professional hacker, decided to attack a target organization's network. To perform
the attack, she used a tool to send fake ARP messages over the target network to link her
MAC address with the target system's IP address. By performing this, Miley received
messages directed to the victim's MAC address and further used the tool to intercept, steal,
modify, and block sensitive communication to the target system. What is the tool employed by Miley to perform the above attack?
A. Gobbler B. KDerpNSpoof C. BetterCAP D. Wireshark
Answer: C
Question # 21
Which of the following scanning method splits the TCP header into several packets and
makes it difficult for packet filters to detect the purpose of the packet?
A. ACK flag probe scanning B. ICMP Echo scanning C. SYN/FIN scanning using IP fragments D. IPID scanning
Answer: C
Explanation:
SYN/FIN scanning using IP fragments is a process of scanning that was developed to
avoid false positives generated by other scans because of a packet filtering device on the
target system. The TCP header splits into several packets to evade the packet filter. For
any transmission, every TCP header must have the source and destination port for the
initial packet (8-octet, 64-bit). The initialized flags in the next packet allow the remote host
to reassemble the packets upon receipt via an Internet protocol module that detects the
fragmented data packets using field-equivalent values of the source, destination, protocol,
and identification.
Question # 22
What useful information is gathered during a successful Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(SMTP) enumeration?
A. The two internal commands VRFY and EXPN provide a confirmation of valid users,
email addresses, aliases, and mailing lists. B. Reveals the daily outgoing message limits before mailboxes are locked C. The internal command RCPT provides a list of ports open to message traffic. D. A list of all mail proxy server addresses used by the targeted host
Answer: A
Question # 23
Insecure direct object reference is a type of vulnerability where the application does not verify if the user is authorized to access the internal object via its name or key. Suppose a
malicious user Rob tries to get access to the account of a benign user Ned.
Which of the following requests best illustrates an attempt to exploit an insecure direct
object reference vulnerability?
A. “GET /restricted/goldtransfer?to=Rob&from=1 or 1=1’ HTTP/1.1Host: westbank.com”
B. “GET /restricted/\r\n\%00account%00Ned%00access HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com” C. “GET /restricted/accounts/?name=Ned HTTP/1.1 Host westbank.com” D. “GET /restricted/ HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com
Answer: C
Explanation: This question shows a classic example of an IDOR vulnerability. Rob
substitutes Ned's name in the "name" parameter and if the developer has not fixed this
vulnerability, then Rob will gain access to Ned's account. Below you will find more detailed
information about IDOR vulnerability.
Insecure direct object references (IDOR) are a cybersecurity issue that occurs when a web
application developer uses an identifier for direct access to an internal implementation
object but provides no additional access control and/or authorization checks. For example,
an IDOR vulnerability would happen if the URL of a transaction could be changed through
client-side user input to show unauthorized data of another transaction.
Most web applications use simple IDs to reference objects. For example, a user in a
database will usually be referred to via the user ID. The same user ID is the primary key to
the database column containing user information and is generated automatically. The
database key generation algorithm is very simple: it usually uses the next available integer.
The same database ID generation mechanisms are used for all other types of database
records.
The approach described above is legitimate but not recommended because it could enable
the attacker to enumerate all users. If it’s necessary to maintain this approach, the
developer must at least make absolutely sure that more than just a reference is needed to
access resources. For example, let’s say that the web application displays transaction
details using the following URL:
https://www.example.com/transaction.php?id=74656
A malicious hacker could try to substitute the id parameter value 74656 with other similar
values, for example:
https://www.example.com/transaction.php?id=74657
The 74657 transaction could be a valid transaction belonging to another user. The
malicious hacker should not be authorized to see it. However, if the developer made an
error, the attacker would see this transaction and hence we would have an insecure direct
object reference vulnerability.
Question # 24
Heather’s company has decided to use a new customer relationship management tool.
After performing the appropriate research, they decided to purchase a subscription to a
cloud-hosted solution. The only administrative task that Heather will need to perform is the
management of user accounts. The provider will take care of the hardware, operating
system, and software administration including patching and monitoring. Which of the
following is this type of solution?
A. SaaS B. IaaS C. CaaS D. PasS
Answer: A Explanation:
Software as a service (SaaS) allows users to attach to and use cloud-based apps over the
web. Common examples ar email, calendaring and workplace tool (such as Microsoft
workplace 365).
SaaS provides a whole software solution that you get on a pay-as-you-go basis from a
cloud service provider. You rent the use of an app for your organisation and your users
connect with it over the web, typically with an internet browser. All of the underlying
infrastructure, middleware, app software system and app knowledge ar located within the
service provider’s knowledge center. The service provider manages the hardware and
software system and with the appropriate service agreement, can make sure the availability
and also the security of the app and your data as well. SaaS allows your organisation to
induce quickly up and running with an app at token upfront cos Common SaaS scenariosThis tool having used a web-based email service like Outlook,
Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail, then you have got already used a form of SaaS. With these
services, you log into your account over the web, typically from an internet browser. the email software system is found on the service provider’s network and your messages ar hold
on there moreover. you can access your email and hold on messages from an internet
browser on any laptop or Internet-connected device.
The previous examples are free services for personal use. For organisational use, you can
rent productivity apps, like email, collaboration and calendaring; and sophisticated business
applications like client relationship management (CRM), enterprise resource coming up
with (ERP) and document management. You buy the use of those apps by subscription or
per the level of use.
Advantages of SaaSGain access to stylish applications. to supply SaaS apps to users, you
don’t ought to purchase, install, update or maintain any hardware, middleware or software
system. SaaS makes even sophisticated enterprise applications, like ERP and CRM,
affordable for organisations that lack the resources to shop for, deploy and manage the
specified infrastructure and software system themselves.
Pay just for what you utilize. you furthermore may economize because the SaaS service
automatically scales up and down per the level of usage.
Use free shopper software system. Users will run most SaaS apps directly from their web
browser without needing to transfer and install any software system, though some apps
need plugins. this suggests that you simply don’t ought to purchase and install special
software system for your users.
Mobilise your hands simply. SaaS makes it simple to “mobilise” your hands as a result of
users will access SaaS apps and knowledge from any Internet-connected laptop or mobile
device. You don’t ought to worry concerning developing apps to run on differing types of
computers and devices as a result of the service supplier has already done therefore.
additionally, you don’t ought to bring special experience aboard to manage the safety
problems inherent in mobile computing. A fastidiously chosen service supplier can make
sure the security of your knowledge, no matter the sort of device intense it.
Access app knowledge from anyplace. With knowledge hold on within the cloud, users will
access their info from any Internet-connected laptop or mobile device. And once app
knowledge is hold on within the cloud, no knowledge is lost if a user’s laptop or device fails.
Question # 25
After an audit, the auditors Inform you that there is a critical finding that you must tackle
Immediately. You read the audit report, and the problem is the service running on port 389.
Which service Is this and how can you tackle the problem?
A. The service is LDAP. and you must change it to 636. which is LDPAPS. B. The service is NTP. and you have to change It from UDP to TCP in order to encrypt it C. The findings do not require immediate actions and are only suggestions. D. The service is SMTP, and you must change it to SMIME. which is an encrypted way to send emails.
Answer: A
Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lightweight_Directory_Access_Protocol
LDAP, the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, is a mature, flexible, and well supported
standards-based mechanism for interacting with directory servers. It’s often used for
authentication and storing information about users, groups, and applications, but an LDAP
directory server is a fairly general-purpose data store and can be used in a wide variety of
applications.
The LDAP protocol can deal in quite a bit of sensitive data: Active Directory usernames,
login attempts, failed-login notifications, and more. If attackers get ahold of that data in
flight, they might be able to compromise data like legitimate AD credentials and use it to
poke around your network in search of valuable assets.
Encrypting LDAP traffic in flight across the network can help prevent credential theft and
other malicious activity, but it's not a failsafe—and if traffic is encrypted, your own team
might miss the signs of an attempted attack in progress.
While LDAP encryption isn't standard, there is a nonstandard version of LDAP called
Secure LDAP, also known as "LDAPS" or "LDAP over SSL" (SSL, or Secure Socket Layer,
being the now-deprecated ancestor of Transport Layer Security).
LDAPS uses its own distinct network port to connect clients and servers. The default port
for LDAP is port 389, but LDAPS uses port 636 and establishes TLS/SSL upon connecting
with a client.
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